LSAT考试全真试题四SECTION4

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LSAT考试全真试题四SECTION4

篇1：LSAT考试全真试题四SECTION4

section iv

time—35 minutes

23 questions

directions: each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. in answering some of the questions it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each questions and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

questions 1-5

in certain recipe contest each contestant submits submits two recipes. one for an appetizer and one for a main dish together the two recipes must include exactly seven flavorings—fenugreek, ginger, lemongrass, nutmeg, paprika, saffron, and turmeric—with no flavoring included in more than one of the two recipes. each contestant s recipes must satisfy the following conditions

the appetizer recipe includes at most three of the flavorings.

fenugreek is not included in the same recipe as nutmeg.

saffron is not included in the same recipe as turmeric

ginger is included in the same recipe as nutmeg

1. which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the flavorings included in one contestant s main-dish recipe?

(a) fenugreek, lemongrass, saffron

(b) fenugreek, ginger, nutmeg, turmeric

(d) ginger, nutmeg, paprika, turmeric

(e) lemongass nutmeg, saffron, turmeric

2. if a contestant s appetizer recipe does not include fenugreek, then the contestant s appetizer recipe must include

(a) ginger

(b) lemongrass

(d) saffron

(e) turmeric

3. which one of the following could be a list of all of the flavorings included in one contestant s appetizer recipe?

(a) fenugreek, saffron

(b) ginger, nutmeg

(d) lemongrass, nutmeg, saffron

(e) fenugreek, lemongrass, paprika, turmeric

4. if a contestant includes lemongrass in the same recipe as paprika, which one of the following is a flavoring that must be included in the contestant s main-dish recipe?

(a) ginger

(b) lemongrass

(d) saffron

(e) turmeric

5. if the condition that requires ginger to be included in the same recipe as nutmeg is suspended but all of the other original conditions remain in effect. then which one of the following could be a list of all of the flavorings included in one contestant s main-dish recipe?

(a) ginger, lemongrass, nutmeg, paprika

(b) ginger, lemongrass, paprika, turmeric

(d) fenugreek, ginger, lemongrass, saffron, turmeric

(d) fenugreek,lemongrass, nutmeg, paprika, saffron

questions 6-10

seven singer—jamine, ken, lalitha, maya, norton, olive, and patrick—will be scheduled to perform in the finals of a singing competition. during the evening of the competition, each singer, performing alone, will give exactly one performance. the schedule for the evening must conform to the following requirements.

jamle performs immediately after ken

parick performs at some time after maya

lalitha performs third only if norton performs fifth.

if patrick does not perform second, he performs fifth

6. which one of the following is an acceptable schedule for the evening s performers, from first through seventh?

(a) ken, jamie, maya, lalitha, patrick norton, olive

(b) lalitha, patrick, norton, olive maya, ken, jamie

(d) olive, maya, ken, lalitha, patrick, norton, jamie

(e) olive, maya, lalitha, norton,patrick, ken jamie

7. if lalitha is scheduled for the third performance which one of the following must be scheduled for the sixth performance?

(a) jame

(b) ken

(d) olive

(e) patrick

8. if norton is scheduled for the fifth performance, which one of the following could be true?

(a) jamie is scheduled for the sixth performance

(b) ken is scheduled for the second performance

(d) maya is scheduled for the third performance

(e) olive is scheduled for the first performance

9. if maya is scheduled for the performance. which one of the following could be true?

(a) jamie is scheduled for the sixth performance

(b) ken is scheduled forthe fourth performance

(d) norton is scheduled for the fifth performance

(e) olive is scheduled for the fourth performance

10. if jamie s performance is scheduled to be immediately before lalitha s performance, jamie s performance cannot be scheduled to be

(a) second

(b) third

(d) fifth

(e) sixth

questions 11-17

at a small press, six texbooks, three introductory—f. g. and h—and three advanced—x, y, and z—will each be evaluated once by the editor, juarez, and once by the publisher. rosenberg, during six consecutive wees—week 1 through week 6 each evaluator evatuates exactly one textbook per week. no textbook will be evaluated by juarez and rosenberg during the same week. the following additional constraints apply.

rosenbery cannot evaluate any introductory textbook until juarez has evaluated that textbook.

juarez cannot evaluate any advanced textbook until

rosenberg has evaluated that textbook

rosenberg cannot evaluate any two introductory textbooks consecutively

juarez must evaluate x during week 4.

11. which one of the following is an acceptable evaluation schedule with the textbooks listed in order of evaluation from week 1 through week 6?

(a) juarez f. g. x. z. h. y

rosenberg x. f. z. g. y. h

(b) juarez: f, y, g, x, h, z

rosenberg, y, f, x, g, z, h

rosenberg x, g, h, y, z, f

(d) juarez g, z, f, z, h, y,

rosenberg z, f, x, g, y, h

(e) juarez h, y, f, x, g, z

rosenberg x, h, z, f, y, g

12. if juarez evaluates h during week 3 and rosenberg evaluates g during week 6, which one fo the following must be true?

(a) juarez evaluates f during week 1

(b) juarez evaluates g during week 2.

(d) rosenberg evaluates x during week 1

(e) rosenberg evaluates y during week 5.

13. if juarez evaluates z during week 2, then rosenberg must evaluate which one of the following textbooks during week 5?

(a) f

(b) h

(d) y

(e) z

14. which one of the following must be true?

(a) rosenberg evaluates h during week 6

(b) rosenberg evaluates an advanced textbook during week 3

(d) juarez evaluates y before evaluating g.

(e) juarez does not evaluate any two introductroy textbooks consecutively

15. if rosenberg evaluates x during week 1 and f during week 2, which one of the following could be true?

(a) x is the third of the advanced textbooks to be evaluated by juarez.

(b) y is the first of the advanced textbooks to be evaluated by juarez.

(d) juarez evaluates g during week 5.

(e) juarez evaluates z during week 6.

16. which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the those weeks during which juarez must evaluate an introductory textbook?

(a) week 1

(b) week 6

(d) week 1, week 2, week 3

(e) week 1, week 3, week 5.

17. which one of the following could be true?

(a) juarez evaluates f during week 6

(b) juarez evaluates z during week 1

(d) rosenberg evaluates h during week 2.

(e) rosenberg evaluates x during week 5

questions 18-23

nine different treatments are available for a certain illness: three antibioties—f, g, and h—three dietary regimens—m, n and o—and three physical therapies—u, y, and w, for each case of the illness, a doctor will prescribe exactly five of the treatments, in accordance with the following conditions.

if two of the antibioties are prescribed, the remaining antibiotie cannot be prescribed

there must be exactly one dietary regimen prescribed

if o is not prescribed f cannot be prescribed

if w is prescribed f cannot be prescribed

g cannot be prescribed if both n and u are prescribed

v cannot be prescribed unless both h and m are prescribed

18. which one of the following could be the five treatments prescribed for a given case?

(a) f, g, h, m, v

(b) f, g, m, o, v

(d) g, h, n, u, w

(e) g, h, o, u, w

19. which one fo the following could be the antibioties and physical therapies prescribed for a given case?

(a) f, g, h, w,

(b) f, g, u, v

(d) g, u, v, w

(e) h, u, v, w

20. if o is prescribed for a given case, which one of the following is a pair of treatments both of which must also be prescribed for that case?

(a) f, m

(b) g, v

(d) u, v

(e) u, w

21. if g is prescribed for a given case which one of the following is a pair of treatments both of which could also be prescribed for that case?

(a) f, m

(b) f, n

(d) o, v

(e) v, w

22. which one of the following is a list of three treatments that could be prescribed together for a given case?

(a) f, m, u

(b) f, o, w

(d) g, v, w

(e) h, n, v

23. which one of the following treatments cannot be prescribed for any case?

(a) g

(b) m

(d) u

(e) w

篇2：LSAT考试全真试题三SECTION4

section iv

time—35 minutes

27 questions

directions: each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. for some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. however, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question, and blacken the corn conding space on your answer sheet.

musicoiogists concerned with the “london pianoforte school,” the group of composers, pedagogues, pianists, publishers, and builders who contributed to the development of the piano in london

(5) at the turn of the nineteenth century have long encountered a formidable obstacle in the general unavailability of music of this “school” in modern scholarly editions, indeed, much of this repertory has more or less vanished from our historical

(10) consciousness. granted, the sonatas and gradus ad parnassum of muzio clementi and the nocturnes of john field have remained farniliar enough (though more often than not in editions lacking scholarly rigor), but the work of other leading representatives, like

(15) johann baptist cramer and jan ladislav dussek, has eluded serious attempts at revival.

nicholas temperley s ambitious new anthology decisively overcomes this deficiency. what underscores the intrinsic value of temperley s editions

(20) is that the anthology reproduces nearly all of the original music in facsimile. making available this cross section of english musical life—some 800 works by 49 composers—should encourage new critical perspectives about how piano music evolved in

(25) england, an issue of considerable relevance to our understanding of how piano music developed on the european continent, and of how, finally, the instrument was transformed from the fortepiano to what we know today as the piano.

(30) to be sure, the london pianoforte school itself calls for review. “school” may well be too strong a word for what was arguably a group unified not so much by stylistic principles or aesthetic creed as by the geographical circumstance that they worked at

(35) various times in london and produced pianos and piano music for english pianos and english markets. indeed, temperley concedes that their “variety may be so great as to cast doubt on the notion of a school. ”

the notion of a school was first propounded by

(40) alexander ringer, who argued that laws of artistic survival forced the young, progressive beethoven to turn outside austria for creative models, and that he found inspiration in a group of pianists connected with clementi in london. ringer s proposed london

(45) pianoforte school did suggest a circumscribed and fairly unified group—for want of a better term, a school—of musicians whose influence was felt primarily in the decades just before and after 1800. after all, beethoven did respond to the advances of the

(50) broadwood piano—its reinforced frame, extended compass, triple strining, and pedsals, for example—and it is reasonable to suppose that london pianists who composed music for such an instrument during the critical phase of its development exercised no small

(55) degree of influence on continental musicians. nevertheless, perhaps the most sensible approach to this issue is to define the school by the period (c, 1766-1873) during which it flourished, as temperley has done in the anthology.

1. which one of the following most accurately states the author s main point?

(a) temperley has recently called into question the designation of a group of composers. pedagogues, pianists, publishers, and builders as the london pianoforte school

(b) temperley s anthology of the music of the london pianoforte school contributes significantly to an understanding of an influential period in the history of music.

(d) primary sources for musical manuserrpts provide the most reliable basis for musicological research.

(e) the development of the modern piano in england influenced composers and other musicians throughout europe.

2. it can be inferred that which one of the following is true of the piano music of the london pianoforte school?

(a) the nocturnes of john field typify the london pianoforte school style.

(b) the gradus ad parnassum of muzio clementi is the best-known work of these composers.

(d) prior to temperley s edition, no attempts to issue new editions of this music had been made.

(e) in modern times much of the music of this school has been little known even to musicians.

3. the author mentions the sonatas of muzio clementi and the nocturnes of john field as examples of which one of the following?

(a) works by composers of the london pianoforte school that have been preserved in rigorous scholarly editions

(b) works that are no longer remembered by most people

(d) works by composers of the london pianoforte school that are relatively wellknown

(e) works by composers of the london pianoforte school that have been revived by temperley in his anthology

4. which one of the following, if true, would most clearly undermine a portion of ringer s argument as the argument is described in the passage?

(a) musicians in austria composed innovative music for the broadwood piano as soon as the instrument became available.

(b) clementi and his followers produced most of their compositions between 1790 and 1810.

(d) the pianist-composers of the london pianoforte school shared many of the same stylistic principles.

(e) most composers of the london pianoforte school were born on the continent and were drawn to london by the work of clementi and his followers.

5. it can be inferred that the author uses the word “advances” (line 49) to refer to

(a) enticements offered musicians by instrument manufacturers

(b) improvements in the structure of a particular instrument

(d) stylistic elaborations made possible by changes in a particular instrument

(e) changes in musicians opinions about a particular instrument

6. it can be inferred from the passage as a whole that the author s purpose in the third paragraph is primarily to

(a) cast doubt on the usefulness of temperley s study of the london pianoforte school

(b) introduce a discussion of the coherency of the london pianoforte school

(d) emphasize the complex nature of the musicological elements shared by members of the london pianoforte school.

(e) identify the unique contributions made to music by the london pianoforte school

7. the author of the passage is primarily concerned with

(a) explaining the influence of the development of the pianoforte on the music of beethoven

(b) describing tempetley s view of the contrast between the development of piano music in england and the development of plano music elsewhere in europe

(c) presenting temperley s evaluation of the impact of changes in piano construction on styles and forms of music composed in the era of the london pianoforte school

(d) considering an altermnative theory to that proposed by ringer concerning the london pianoforte school

(e) discussing the contribution of temperley s anthology to what is known of the history of the london pianoforte school

8. it can be inferred that temperley s anthology treats the london pianoforte school as

(a) a group of pianist-composers who shared certain stylistic principles and arustic creeds

(b) a group of people who contributed to the development of piano music between 1766 and 1873

(d) a series of compositions for the pianoforte published in the decades just before and just after 1800

(e) a series of compositions that had a significant influence on the music of the continent in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries

what is “law”? by what processes do judges arrive at opinions. those documents that justify their belief that the “law” dictates a conclusion one way or the other? these are among the oldest questions in

(5) jurisprudence, debate about which has traditionally been dominated by representatives of two schools of thought: proponents of natural law, who see law as intertwined with a moral order independent of society s rules and mores, and legal positivists, who see law

(10) solely as embodying the commands of a society s ruling authority

since the early 1970s, these familiar questions have received some new and surprising answers in the legal academy. this novelty is in part a consequence of the

(15) increasing influence there of academic disciplines and intellectual traditions previously unconnected with the study of law. perhaps the most influential have been the answers given by the law and economics school. according to these legal economists, law consists and

(20) ought to consist of those rules that maximize a society s material wealth and that abet the efficient operation of markets designed to generate wealth. more controversial have been the various answers provided by members of the critical legal studies movement

(25) according to whom law is one among several cultural mechanisms by which holders of power seek to legitimate their domination. drawing on related arguments developed in anthropology, sociology, and history, the critical legal scholars contend that law is an

(30) expression of power, but not, as held by the positivists, the power of the legitimate sovereign government. rather, it is an expression of the power of elites who may have no legitimate authority, but who are intent on preserving the privileges of their race, class, or gender.

(35) in the mid-1970s, james boyd white began to articulate yet another interdiseiplinary response to the traditional questions, and in so doing spawned what is now known as the law and literature movement white has insisted that law, particularly as it is

(40) interpreted in judicial opinions, should be understood as an essentially literary activity. judicial opinions should be read and evaluated not primarily as political acts or as atte mpts to maximize society s wealth through efficient rules, but rather as artistic

(45) performances. and like all such performances, white argues, each judicial opinion attempts in its own way to promote a particular political or ethical value.

in the recent justice as translation, white argues that opinion-writing should be regarded as an act of

(50) “translation,” and judges as “translators.” as such, judges find themselves mediating between the authoritative legal text and the pressing legal problem that demands resolution. a judge must essentially “re-constitute” that text by fashioning a new one, which

(55) is faithful to the old text but also responsive to and informed by the conditions, constraints, and aspirations of the world in which the new legal problem has arisen.

9. which one of the following best states the main idea of the passage?

(a) within the last few decades, a number of novel approaches to jurisprudence have defined the nature of the law in diverse ways.

(b) within the last few decades, changes in society and in the number and type of cases brought to court have necessitated new methods of interpreting the law.

(c) of the many interdisciplinary approaches to jurisprudence that have surfaced in the last tow decades, the law and literature movement is the most intellectually coherent.

(d) the law and literature movement, first articulated by james boyd white in the mid-1970s, represents a synthesis of the many theories of jurisprudence inspired by the social sciences

(e) such traditional legal scholars as legal positivists and natural lawyers are increasingly on the defensive against attacks from younger, more progressive theorists.

10. according to the passage, judicial opinions have been described as each of the following except:

(a) political statements

(b) arcane statements

(d) artistic performances

(e) acts of translation

11. which one of the following statements is most compatible with the principles of the critical legal studies movement as that movement is described in the passage?

(a) laws governing the succession of power at the death of a head of state represent a synthesis of legal precedents, specific situations, and the values of lawmakers

(b) laws allowing income tax deductions for charitable contributions, though ostensibly passed by lawmakers, were devised by and are perpetuated by the rich

(c) laws governing the tariffs placed on imported goods must favor the continuation of mutually beneficial trade arrangements, even at the expense of long-standing legal precedent.

(d) laws governing the treatment of the disadvantaged and powerless members of a given society are an accurate indication of that society s moral state.

(e) laws controlling the electoral processes of a representative democracy have been devised by lawmakers to ensure the continuation of that governmental system.

12. which one of the following does the passage mention as a similarity between the critical legal studies movement and the law and literature movement?

(a) both offer explanations of how elites maintain their hold on power.

(b) both are logical extensions of either natural law or legal positivism.

(d) both rely on disciplines not traditionally connected with the study of law.

(e) both see the practice of opinion-writing as a mediating activity.

13. which one of the following can be inferred from the passage about the academic study of jurisprudence before the 1970s?

(a) it was concerned primarily with codifying and maintaining the privileges of elites.

(b) it rejected theories that interpreted law as an expression of a group s power.

(d) it was concerned primarily with the study of law as an economic and moral agent.

(e) it was not concerned with such disciplines as anthropology and sociology.

14. proponents of the law and literature movement would most likely agree with which one of the following statements concerning the relationship between the law and judges written opinions?

(a) the once-stable relationship between law and opinion-writing has been undermined by new and radical theoretical developments

(b) only the most politically conservative of judges continue to base their opinions on natural law or on legal positivism.

(c) the occurrence of different legal situations requires a judge to adopt diverse theoretical approaches to opinion-writing.

(d) different judges will not necessarily write the same sorts of opinions when confronted with the same legal situation.

(e) judges who subseribe to divergent theories of jurisprudence will necessarily render divergent opinions.

15. which one of the following phrases best describes the meaning of “re-constitute” as that word is used in line 54 of the passage?

(a) categorize and rephrase

(b) investigate and summarize

(d) paraphrase and announce

(e) negotiate and synthesize

16. the primary purpose of the passage is to

(a) identify differing approaches

(b) discount a novel trend

(d) correct misinterpretations

(e) reconcile seeming inconsistencies

since the early 1920s, most petroleum geologists have favored a biogenic theory for the formation of oil. according to this theory, organic matter became buried in sediments, and subsequent conditions of temperature

(5) and pressure over time transformed it into oil.

since 1979 an opposing abiogenic theory about the origin of oil has been promulgated. according to this theory, what is now oil began as hydrocarbon compounds within the earth s mantle (the region

(10) between the core and the crust) during the formation of the earth. oil was created when gasses rich in methanc, the lightest of the hydrocarbons, rose from the mantle through fractures and fauhs in the crust, carrying a significant amount of heavier hydrocarbons with them.

(15) as the gases encountered intermittent drops in pressure, the heavier hydrocarbons condensed, forming oil, and were deposited in reservoirs throughout the crust, rock regions deformed by motions of the crustal plates provided the conduits and fracures necessary for the

(20) gases to rise through the crust.

opponents of the abiogenic theory charge that hydrocarbons could not exist in the mantle, because high lemperatures would destroy or break them down. advocates of the theory, however, point out that other

(25) types of carbon exist in the mantle: unoxidized carbon must exist there, because diamonds are formed within the mantle before being brought to the surface by eruptive processes. proponents of the abiogenic theory also point to recent experimental work that suggests

(30) that the higher pressures within the mantle tend to offset the higher temperatures, allowing hydrocarbons, like unoxidized carbon, to continue to exist in the mantle.

if the abiogenic theory is correct, vast undiscovered

(35) reservoirs of oil and gas—undiscovened because the biogenic model precludes their existence—may in actuality exist. one company owned by the swedish government has found the abiogenic theory so persuasive that it has started exploratory drilling for gas

(40) or oil in a granite formation called the siljan ring—not the best place to look for gas or oil if one belives they are derived from organic compounds, because granite forms from magma (molten rock) and contains no organic sediments. the ring was formed about 360

(45) million years ago when a large meteorite hit the 600-million-year-old granite that forms the base of the continental crust. the impact fractured the granite, and the swedes believe that if oil comes from the mantle, it could have risen with methane gas through this now

(50) permeable rock. fueling their optimism further is the fact that prior to the start of drilling, methane gas had been detected rising through the granite.

17. which one of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?

(a) although the new abiogenic theory about the origin of oil is derived from the conventional biogenic theory, it suggests new types of locations for oil drilling.

(b) the small number of drilling companies that have responded to the new abiogenic theory about the origin of oil reflects the minimal level of acceptance the theory has met with in the scientific community.

(c) although the new abiogenic theory about the origin of oil fails to explain several enigmas about oil reservoirs, it is superior to the conventional biogenic theory.

(d) although it has yet to receive either support or refutation by data gathered from a drilling project, the new abiogenic theory about the origin of oil offers a plausible alternative to the conventional biogenic theory.

(e) having answered objections about higher pressures in the earth s core, proponents of the new abiogenic theory have gained broad acceptance for their theory in the scientific community.

18. which one of the following best describes the function of the third paragraph?

(a) it presents a view opposed to a theory and points out an internal contradiction in that opposing view.

(b) it describes a criticism of a theory and provides countervailing evidence to the criticism.

(d) it explains an argument against a theory and shows it to be a valid criticism.

(e) it points out the correspondence between an argument against one theory and arguments against similar theories.

19. the passage suggests that the opponents of the abiogenic theory mentioned in the third paragraph would most probably agree with which one of the following statements?

(a) the formation of oil does not involve the condensation of hyarocarbons released from the earth s mantle.

(b) large oil reserves are often found in locations that contain small amounts of organic matter.

(c) the eruptive processes by which diamonds are brought to the earth s surface are similar to those that aid in the formation of oil.

(d) motions of the crustal plates often create the pressure necessary to transform organic matter into oil.

(e) the largest known oil reserves may have resulted from organic matter combining with heavier hydrocarbons carried by methane gas.

20. which one of the following is most analogous to the situation described in the final paragraph?

(a) a new theory about the annual cycles of breeding and migration of the monarch butterfly has led scientists to look for similar patterns in other butterfly species.

(b) a new theory about the stage at which a star collapses into a black hole has led astronomers to search for evidence of black holes in parts of the universe where they had not previously searched.

(c) a new theory about how the emission of sulfur dioxide during coal-burning can be reduced has led several companies to develop desulfurization systems.

(d) a new theory about photosynthesis has convinced a research team to explore in new ways the various functions of the cell membrane in plant cells.

(e) a new theory about the distribution of metals in rock formations has convinced a silver-mining company to keep different types of records of its operations.

21. according to the passage all of the following are true of the siljan ring except:

(a) it was formed from magma.

(b) it does not contain organic sediments.

(d) methane gas has been detected rising through it

(e) it was shaped from the granite that makes up the base of the continental crust.

most studies of recent southeast asian immigrants to the united states have focused on their adjustment to life in their adopted country and on the effects of leaving their homelands. james tollefson s alien

(5) winds examines the resettlement process from a different perspective by investigating the educational programs offered in immigrant processing centers. based on interviews transcripts from classes, essays by immigrants, personal visits to a teacher-training unit,

(10) and official government documents. tollefson relies on an impressive amount and variety of documentation in making his arguments about processing centers educational programs.

tollefson s main contention is that the emphasis

(15) placed on immediate employment and on teaching the values, attitudes, and behaviors that the training personnel think will help the immigrants adjust more easily to life in the united states in often counterproductive and demoralizing. because of

(20) concerns that the immigrants be self-supporting as soon as possible, they are trained almost exclusively for low-level jobs that do not require english proficiency. in this respect. tollefson claims. the processing centers suit the needs of employers more than they suit the

(25) long-term needs of the immigrant community. tolletson also detects a fundamental flaw in the attempts by program educators to instill in the immigrants the traditionally western principles of self-sufficiency and individual success. there efforts often

(30) have the effect of undermining the immigrants sense of community and, in doing so, sometimes isolate them from the moral support and even from business opportunities afforded by the immigrant community. the programs also encourage the immigrants to shed

(35) their cultural traditions and ethnic identity and adopt the lifestyles, beliefs, and characteristies of their adopted country if they wish to enter fully into the national life.

tollefson notes that the ideological nature of these

(40) educational programs has roots in the turn-of-the-century educational programs designed to assimilate european immigrants into united states society. tollefson provides a concise history of the assimilationist movement in immigrant education, in

(45) which european immigrants were encouraged to leave behind the ways of the old world and to adopt instead the principles and practices of the new world.

tollefson ably shows that the issues demanding real attention in the educational programs for southeast

(50) asian immigrants are not merely employment rates and government funding, but also the assumptions underpinning the educational values in the programs. he recommends many improvements for the programs, including giving the immigrants a stronger voice in

(55) determining their needs and how to meet them, redesigning the curricula, and emphasizing long-term language education and job training over immediate employment and the avoiding of public assistance, unfortunately, though, tollefson does not offer enough

(60) concreate solutions as to how these reforms could be carried out, despite his own descriptions of the complicated bureaucratic nature of the programs.

22. which one of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?

(a) tollefson s focus on the economic and cultural factors involved in adjusting to a new country offers a significant departure from most studies of southeast asian immigration.

(b) in his analysis of educational programs for southeast asian immigrants. tollefson fails to acknowledge many of the positive effects the programs have had on immigrants lives.

(c) tollefson convincingly blames the philosophy underlying immigrant educational programs for some of the adjustment problems afflicting southeast asian immigrants.

(d) tollefson s most significant contribution is his analysis of how southeast asian immigrants overcome the obstacles they encounter in immigrant educational programs.

(e) tollefson tractes a gradual yet significant change in the attitudes held by processing center educators toward southeast asian immigrants.

23. with which one of the following statements concerning the educational programs of the immigration centers would tollefson most probably agree?

(a) although the programs offer adequate job training, they offer inadequate english training.

(b) some of the programs attempts to improve the earning power of the immigrants cut them off from potential sources of income.

(c) inclusion of the history of immigration in the united states in the programs currcula facilitates adjustment for the immigrants.

(d) immigrants would benefit if instructors in the programs were better prepared to teach the curricula developed in the teacher-training courses.

(e) the programs curricula should be redesigned to include greater emphasis on the shared values. beliefs, and practices in the united states.

24. which one of the following best describes the opinion of the author of the passage with respect to tollefson s work?

(a) thorough but misguided

(b) innovative but incomplete

(d) illuminating but unappreciated

(e) well documented but unoriginal

25. the passage suggests that which one of the following is an assumption underlying the educational approach in immigrant processing centers?

(a) there is a set of values and behaviors that if adopted by immigrants, facilitate adjustment to united states society

(b) when recent immigrants are self-supporting rather than supported by public assistance, they tend to gain english proficiency more quickly

(d) long-term success for immigrants is best achieved by encouraging the immigrants to maintain a strong sense of community.

(e) the principles of self-sufficiency and individual success are central to southeast asian culture and ethnicity.

26. which one of the following best describes the function of the first paragraph of the passage?

(a) it provides the scholarly context for tollefson s study and a description of his methodology

(b) it compares tollefson s study to other works and presents the main argument of his study.

(d) it presents the accepted meory on tollefson s topic and the method by which tollefson challenges it

(e) it argues for the analytical and technical superiority of tollefson s study over other works on the topic

27. the author of the passage refers to tollefson s descriptions of the bureaucratic nature of the immigrant educational programs in the fourth paragraph most probably in order to

(a) criticize tollefson s decision to combine a description of the bureaucracies with suggestions for improvement.

(b) emphasize the author s disappointment in tollefson s overly general recommendations for improvements to the programs.

(d) support a contention that tollefson s recommendations for improvements do not focus on the real sources of the programs problems

(e) suggest a parallel between the complexity of the bureaucracies and the complexity of tollefson s arguments

篇3：LSAT考试全真试题五SECTION4

section iv

time—35 minutes

27 questions

directions: each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. for some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question however, you are to choose the best answer that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the questions. and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

many literary scholars believe that zora neale hurston s their eyes were watching god (1937) has been the primary influence on some of the most accomplished black women writing in the united

(5) states today. indeed, alice walker, the author of the prize-winning novel the color purple. has said of their eyes. “there is no book more important to me than this one.” thus, it seems necessary to ask why their eyes, a work now viewed by a multitude

(10) of readers as remarkably successful in its complex depiction of a black woman s search for self and community. was ever relegated to the margins of the literary canon

the details of the novel s initial reception help

(15) answer this question. unlike the recently rediscovered and rerexamined work of harriet wilson. their eyes was not totally ignored by book reviewers upon its publication. in fact, it received a mixture of positive and negative reviews both from

(20) white book reviewers working for prominent periodicals and from important figures within black literary circles in the saturday review of literanre george stevens wrote that “the narration is exactly right, because most of it is dialogue and the

(25) dialogue gives us a constant sense of character in action the negative criticism was partially a result of hurston s ideological differences with other members of the black americans in literature. black

(30) writers of the 1940s believed that the black artist s primary responsibility was to create protest fiction that explored the negative effects of racism in the united states. for example, richard wright, the author of the much acclaimed native son (1940)

(35) wrote that their eyes had ”no theme“ and ”no message“ most crities and readers expectations of black literature rendered them unable to appreciate hurston s subtle delineation of the life of an ordinary black woman in a black community

(40) and the novel went quietly out of print

recent acclaim for their eyes results from the emergence of feminist literary criticism and the development of standards of evaluation specific to the work of black writers; these kinds of criticism

(45) changed readers expectations of art and enabled them to appreciate hurston s novel the emergence of feminist criticism was crucial because such criticism brought new attention to neglected works such as hurston s and alerted readers to hurston s

(50) exploration of women s issues in her fictionl. the afroncentric standards of evaluation were equally important to the rediscovery of their eyes, for such standards provided readers with the tools to recognize and appreciate the black folklore and

(55) oral storytelling traditions hurston incorporated within her work. in one of the most illuminating discussions of the novel to date. henry louis gates jr. states that ”hurston s strategy seems to concern itself with the possibilities of representation of the

(60) speaking black voice in writing“

1. the passage suggests which one of the following about harriet wilson s novel?

(a) it was written at the same time as their eyes were watching god, but it did not receive as much critical attention.

(b) it greatly influenced black women writing after the 1940s.

(d) it was not formally published, and the manuscript has only recently been discovered by literary crities.

(e) it did not receive critical attention when it was published, but it has recently become the subject of critical study.

2. the passage offers support for which one of the following statements about literary reviewers and their eyes were watching god?

(a) their eyes was widely acclaimed by reviewers upon its publication. even though it eventually went out of print.

(b) the eventual obscurity of their eyes was not the result of complete neglect by reviewers

(d) their eyes was more typical of the protest fiction of the 1940s than reviewers realized

(e) most early reviewers of their eyes did not respond positively to the book.

3. which one of the following best states the main idea of the passage?

(a) hurston s their eyes were watching god had little in common with novels written by blank authors during the 1940s.

(b) feminist critics and authors such as alice walker were instrumental in establishing hurston s their eyes were watching god as an important part of the american literary canon.

(c) crities and readers were unable to appreciate fully hurston s their eyes were watching god until crties applied new standards of evaluation to the novel

(d) hurston s their eyes were watching god was an important influence on the protest fiction written by black writers in the mid-twentieth century.

(e) afrocentric strategies of analysis have brought attention to the use of oral storytelling traditions in novels written by black americans such as hurston s their eyes were watching god.

4. according to the passage which one of the following is true of black folklore traditions as used in literature written in the united states?

(a) they are an aspect of black american literature first recognized and written about by henry louis gates. jr

(b) they were not widely incorporated into novels written by black americans until after the 1940s

(d) they were not incorporated into novels published by black americans in the 1940s

(e) they are an aspect of black literature that some readers did not fully appreciate until relatively recently.

5. the passage suggests that native son differes from their eyes were watching god in which one of the following ways?

(a) it received fewer positive reviews at the time of its publication than did their eyes

(b) it is less typical of literature written by black americans during the 1940s than is then eyes

(d) it deniets more aspects of black american folklore than does their eyes.

(e) it has received more attention from feinist and afrocentric literary critics than their eyes

6. which one of the following provides the clearest example of the kind of fiction that many black writers of the 1940s, as their views are described in the passage, believed should be written?

(a) a novel that focuses on the interrelationships among four generations of black women

(b) a historical novel that re-creates actual events that occurred as black people suffered from oppression and racial injustice in a small town

(c) a novel, based on biographical stories orally relayed to the author as a child, that describes the development of traditions in a black family

(d) a novel that explores the psychological aspects of a relationship between a white man and a black man as they work together to organize protests against unjust working conditions

(e) a novel that examines the different ways in which three black children experience their first day of school in a rural community

7. the author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about the relationship between art and literary criticism?

(a) the long-term reputation of a work of art is less dependent on the response of literary critics than on the response of readers and authors

(b) experimental works of fiction are usually poorly received and misunderstood by lterary crities when they are first published

(c) the response of literary critics to a work of art can be determined by certain ideological perspectives and assumptions about the purpose of art

(d) literary critics do not significantly affect the way most people interpret and appreciate literature.

(e) the ideological bases of a work of art are the first consideration of most literary critics.

8. the primary purpose of the passage is to

(a) correct a misconception

(b) explain a reassessment

(d) criticize a conventional approach

(e) announce a new discovery

legal cases can be termed ”hard“ cases if they raise issues that are highly controversial, issues about which people with legal training disagree. the ongoing debate over the completeness of the

(5) law usually concerns the extent to which such haard cases are legally determinate, or decidable according to existing law.

h l a hart s the concept of law is still the clearest and most persuasive statement of both the

(10) standard theory of hard cases and the standard theory of law on which it rests. for hart the law consists of legal rules formulated in general terms; these terms he calls ”open textured“ which means that they contain a ”core“ of settled meaning and a

(15) ”penumbra“ or ”periphery“ where their meaning is not determinate. for example, suppose an ordinance prohibits the use of vehicles in a park. ”vehicle“ has a core of meaning which includes cars and motoreycles but. hart claims, other

(20) vehicles, such as bicycles, fall within the peripheral meaning of ”vehicle“ so that the law does not establish whether they are prohibited. there will always be cases not covered by the core meaning of legal terms within existing laws. hart considers

(25) these cases to be legally indeterminate. since courts cannot decide such cases on legal grounds they must consider nonlegal (for example, moral and political) grounds, and thereby exercise judicial discretion to make, rather than apply law

(30) in ronald dworkin s view the law is richer than hart would grant: he denies that the law consists solely of explicit rules. the law also includes principles that do not depend for their legal status on any prior official recognition or enactment

(35) dworkin claims that many cases illustrate the existence of legal principles that are different from legal rules and that hart s model of rules cannot accommodate. for dworkin, legal rules apply in an all-or-nothing fashion whereas legal principles do

(40) not they provide the rationale for applying legal rules. thus, because dworkin thinks there is law in addition to legal rules, he thinks that legal indeterminacy and the need for judicial discretion do not follow from the existence of open texture in

(45) legal rules

it would be a mistakethough to dispute hart s theory of hard cases on this basis alone if hart s claim about the ”open texture“ of general terms is true, then we should expect to find legal

(50) indeterminacies even if the law consists of principles in addition to rules legal principles as well as legal rules contain general terms that have open texture. and it would be absurd to suppose that wherever the meaning of a legal rule is unclear

(55) there is a legal principle with a clear meaning most interesting and controversial cases will occur in the penumbra of both rules and principles.

9. which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?

(a) the law will never be complete because new situations will always arise which will require new laws to resolve them.

(b) the most difficult legal cases are those concerning controversial issues about which trained legal minds have differing opinions.

(c) the concept of legal principles does not diminish the usefulness of the concept of the open texture of general terms in deciding whether hard cases are legally determinate.

(d) the concept of legal principles is a deleterious addition to the theory of law since any flaws exhibited by legal rules could also be shared by legal principles.

(e) the inherent inconsistency of terms used in laws provides a continuing opportunity for judges to exercise their discretion to correct defect and gaps in the law.

10. according to the passage the term ”legal principles“ as used by dworkin refers to

(a) a comprehensive code of ethics that governs the behavior of professionals in the legal system

(b) explicit analyses of the terms used in legal rules indicating what meanings the terms do and do not cover

(d) legal rules that have not yet passed through the entire legislative procedure necessary for them to become law

(e) the body of legal decisions regarding cases that required judicial discretion for their resolution

11. which one of the following expresses a view that the author of the passage would most proably hold concerning legal principles and legal rules?

(a) legal rules are applied more often than legal principles when a case involves issues about which legal professionals disagree.

(b) both legal rules and legal principles are officially recognized as valid parts of the law.

(d) legal principles are just as likely as legal rules to have terms that have both core and peripheral meanings

(e) legal principles eliminate the need for judicial discretion in resolving the problems generated by the open texture of legal rules.

12. in the passage, the author uses the example of the word ”vehicle“ to

(a) illustrate a legal rule that necessarily has exceptions

(b) show how legal principles are applied in the construction of legal rules

(d) serve as an example of a legal term with both a core and a periphery of meaning

(e) provide a counterexample to hart s concept of the open texture of legal terms

13. it can be inferred that the author of the passage regards hart s theory of hard cases and the theory of standard law as

(a) exhaustive

(b) worthy of respect

(d) plausible but unwieldy

(e) hopelessly outmoded

14. which one of the following is true of the term ”legally determinate“ (line 6) as it is used in the passage?

(a) it represents the idea that every crime should have a fixed penalty rather than a range of penalties within which a judge can make an arbitrary choice

(b) it refers to a legal case that can be definitively resolved in favor of one side or the other according to the law in effect at the time

(c) it describes a legal rule that requires judges to limit their actions to applying written law when deciding cases over which people with legal training disagree

(d) it refers to any legal case that involves terms with imprecise meanings and thus relies for its resolution only on the determination of judges.

(e) it refers to procedures for determining the legal outcome of complex issues in difficult cases.

15. in the passage, the author is primarily concerned with

(a) outlining the problems that might be faced by a legislature attempting to create a complete body of law that would prevent judges from making rather than applying the law

(b) justifying the idea that ”hard“ cases will always exist in the practice of law, no matter what laws are written or how they are applied

(c) presenting evidence to support dworkin s idea that legal rules apply in an all-or-nothing fashion whereas legal principles apply in more sophisticated ways

(d) critiquing the concept of the open texture of legal terms as a conceptual flaw in hart s otherwise well-regarded book.

(e) demonstrating that dworkin s concept of legal principles does not form the basis for a successful attack on hart s theory of legally indeterminate cases

one way governments can decrease air pollution is to impose a tax on industrial carbon dixide emissions. but why should governments consider a carbon tax when they could control emissions by

(5) establishing energy efficiency and conservation standards, by legislating against coal use or by increasing inverstment in nuclear? the great virtue of such a tax is that it would provide incentives for industry to achieve emission

(10) reductions. because oil emits more carbon dioxide per unit of energy generated than does natural gas, and coal more than oil,a carbon tax would vary with the type of fuel.such a tax would induce industry to substitute less- polluting fuels for those carrying a

(15) higher tax and also to reduce the total use of energy

however it is not clear how high such a tax should be or what its economic and environmental implications would be. at first glance, it is not

(20) difficult to estimate roughly the size of the tax needed to effect a given level of emission reduction. one writer estimates for example that a tax of 41 percent on the price of coal 33 percent on oil and 25 percent on gas would reduce the united

(25) kingdom s emissions by 20 percent (using 1988 as the base year) by the year the target recommended by the 1988 toronto conference. it should be noted however that these numbers ignore the effect of the tax on economic growth, and

(30) hence on emissions, and assume that past responses to a price rise will be replicated in the future these numbers are also based on the assumption that all countries will behave cooperatively in imposing a carbon tax.

(35) there are very strong reasons to believe that cooperation would be difficult to win. if most countries cooperated. then any country that chose not to cooperate would be advantaged it would have no abatement costs, and the effect on the

(40) environment of its defection would be relatively small. because of this ”free rider“ effect cooperation on a scale needed to reduce carbon dioxide emissions might prove elusive

should countries act unilaterally to durb

(45) emissions? if a country were to act unilaterally the benefits would be spread across the globe, whereas the costs would fall solely on the country taking the action. the action would reduce emissions globally and the effect of this would be to reduce the benefit

(50) other countries would receive if they reduced emissions. as a consequence other countries would have less incentive to reduce emissions and would probably emit more carbon dioxide than they would have if the unilateral action had not been taken

(55) the entire effect of the emission reduction may not be lost, but it would surely be dimminished by this free-riding behavior

16. according to the passage, the size of the carbon tax levied on a given fuel would vary with the

(a) amount of that fuel used by a particular industry

(b) amount of pollution caused by the fuel being taxed

(d) effect that the tax would have on a country s economy

(e) number of usuers of a particular fuel at a particular time

17. the author mentions the estimates of ”one writer“ (line 22) primarily in order to

(a) indicate in a general way the size that a carbon tax must be for it to be effective.

(b) provide the most accurate information available about the most practical size for a carbon tax

(d) undermine the argument that a carbon tax would provide incentives for user s to achieve emissions reductions

(e) show how the size of an effective carbon tax can be calculated

18. which one of the following circumstances would most seriously undermine the conclusion ”such a tax would induce induce industry to substitute less-polluting fuels for those carrying a higher tax“ (lines 13-15)

(a) the fuel taxed a the highest rate costs considerably less to buy than fuels taxed at lower rates

(b) the goal set by the toronto conference cannot be reached unless each fuel it taxed at a much higher rate

(d) it is discovered that gas produces even less carbon dioxide per unit of energy generated than was previously thought.

(e) it is discovered that coal produces even more carbon dioxide per unit of energy generated than are previously thought.

19. the passage is primarily intended to answer which one of the following questions?

(a) how high a tax should a country s government impose on carbon dioxide emissions?

(b) what issues should a country s government consider before deciding whether to impose a tax on carbon dioxide emissions?

(d) how can the effects of industrial pollution on the earth s atmosphere be decreased?

(e) what can be done to increase the effectiveness of any tax that a country imposes on carbon dioxide emissions?

20. in response to the question. ”should countries act unilaterally to curb emissions?“ (line 44-45) the author would be most likely to contend that a country should

(a) not act unilaterally because although that country would receive some benefits from such action other countries would most likely be harmed by it

(b) not act unilaterally because unilateral action would have no benefits for other countries

(c) not act unilaterally because the cost to that country would not be justified by the limited effect that such action would have on industrial pollution worldwide

(d) act unilaterally because that country s economy would benefit from the resulting reduction in industrial emissions worldwide

(e) act unilaterally because other countries might well be inspired to follow that country s example

21. which one of the following is most parallel to the ”free rider“ effect mentioned in line 41?

(a) an industry agrees to base itself in a city where there has been little industrial development only if the city will rezone the specific property the industry desires.

(b) because fares for public transportation are rising a commuter decides to bicycle to work rather than to use public transportation i a city where auto emissions are a problem

(c) an apartment dweller begins to recycle newspapeers even though no one else in the building does so and recycling is not required by law

(d) in an area where groundwater has become polluted a homeowner continues to buy bottled water rather than contribute to a neighborhood fund to combat pollution

(e) in an area where overgrazing is a severe problem a shepherd allows his sheep to continue grazing common field even though his neighbors have agreed to buy feed for their animals until regrowth occurs

some meteorologists have insisted that the severity of the drought in sub-saharan west africa and its long duration (nearly 40 years to date) must be a sign of a long term alteration in climate

(5) among the theories proposed to explain this change one hypothesis that has gained widespread attention attributes the drought to a cooling of the northern hemisphere. this hypothesis is based on the fact that between 1945 and the early 1970s the

(10) average annual air temperatures over the landmasses of the northern hemisphere decreased by about half a degree fahrenheit (approximately one quarter of a degree celsius—a samll but significant amount). several meterologists have

(15) suggested that this cooling was caused by an increase in atmospheric dust emanating from volcanic eruptions and from urban and industrial pollution the dust reflected incoming sunlight. causing the ground to receive less solar radiation

(20) and to transfer less heart to the atmosphere. the cooling seemed to be more pronounced in the middle and high latitudes than in the tropies an observation that is consistent with the fact that the sun s rays enter the atmosphere at a greater angle

(25) farther north and so have to pass through more dust-laden atmosphere on the way to the earth.

since winds are set in motion by differences in air pressure caused by unequal heating of the atmosphere supporters of the cooling hypothesis

(30) have argued that a growing temperature differential between the unusually cool middle and high latitudes and the warm tropical latitudes is causing a southward expansion of the circumpolar vortex—the high-altitude westerly winds that circle

(35) the northern hemisphere at middle latitudes according to this hypothesis as the circumpolar vortex expands, it forces south other components of large- scale atmospheric circulation and in effect displaces the northward-moving monsoon that

(40) ordinarily bring sub-saharan rain proponents have further argued that this change in atmospheric circulation might be long-term since cooling in the northern hemisphere could be perpetuated by increases in ice and snow coverage there which

(45) would lead to reflection of more sunlight away from the earth to further cooling and indirectly to further drought in sub-saharan west africa

despite these are ptedtctions and even though the current african drought has lasted longer than

(50) any other in this century the notion that the drough is caused by cooling of the northern hemisphere is. fact not well supported contrary to the predictions of the cooling hypothesis, during one period of rapid northern hemisphere cooling

(55) in the early 1950s, the sub-sahara was unusually rain moreover in the early 1980s, when the drought was particularly severe northern hemisphere lands actually warmed slightly. and furhter doubt has been cast on the hypothesis by

(60) recent analyses suggesting that when surface temperatures of water as well as land are taken into account the northern hemisphere may not have cooled at all

22. which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?

(a) there is strong evidence to support the theory that an increase in atmospheric dust has contributed to the severity of the drought in sub- saharan west africa

(b) the suggestion that northern hemisphere cooling is contributing to a decline of rainfall in sub-saharan west africa is open to question

(c) the expansion of the circumpolar vortex has caused a dramatic shift in the atmospheric circulation patterns above sub-saharan west africa

(d) the drought in sub-saharan west africa represents a long-term permanent alteration in global climake patterns

(e) meteorologists cannot determine when the droutht in sub-saharan west africa is likely to end

23. the author s attitude toward the cooling hypothesis is best described as one of

(a) vehement opposition

(b) cautious skepticism

(d) guarded enthusiasm

(e) strong support

24. according to the passage proponents of the cooling hypothesis suggested that the circumpolar vortex is likely to expand when which one of the following occurs?

(a) the average annual atmoshperic temperature of the tropics is significantly higher than normal for an extended period of time.

(b) the average annual snowfall in the northern hemisphere is lower than normal for an extended period of time.

(c) the average annual surface temperature of northern hemisphere waters is higher than the average annual surface temperature of northern hemisphere landmasses

(d) there is a significant increase in the difference between the average annual atmospheric temperature of the tropies and that of the more northern latitudes

(e) there is a significant increase in the difference between the average annual atmospheric temperatures of the middle and the high latitudes in the northern hemisphere.

25. which one of the following can be inferred from the passage about the average annual temperature of the air over northern hemisphere landmasses before 1945?

(a) it was higher than it was between 1945 and the early 1970s.

(b) it was lower than it was during the early 1980s.

(d) it was the same as the annual average surface temperature of northern hemisphere landmasses and bodies of water between 1945 and the early 1970s.

(e) it was higher than the annual average surface temperature of northern hemisphere landmasses and bodies of water between 1945 and the early 1970s.

26. which one of the following best deseribes the organization of the passage?

(a) opposing points of view are presented evidence supporting each point of view is discussed and then one point of view is developed into a formal hypothesis

(b) a theory is discussed and different points of view about the theory are discussed supported and then reconciled

(d) a theory explaining a phenomenon is proposed supporting evidence is considered and then the theory is disputed

(e) a point of view is presented a theory supporting the view is proposed contradictory evidence is presented and then a different theory is proposed.

27. a proponent of the cooling hypothesis would most likely argue that the return of the monsoon rains to sub-saharan west africa would indicate that which one of the following has also occurred?

(a) the amount of ice and snow coverage over the landmasses of the northern hemisphere has increased

(b) the average annual temperature of the atmosphere over the middle and high latitudes of the northern hemisphere has decreased

(d) other components of large-scale atmospheric circulation besides the circumpolar vortex have expanded and moved southward

(e) the atmospheric circulation pattern of the high-altitude westerly winds has resumed its normal pattern

篇4：LSAT考试全真试题四SECTION2

section ii

time—35 minutes

25 questions

directions: the questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. for some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. however, you are to choose the best answer, that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. you should pot make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage after you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on you answer sheet.

1. press release a comprehensive review evaluating the medical studies done up to the present time has found no reason to think that drinking coffee in normal amounts harms the coffee-drinker s heart so coffee drinkers can relax and enjoy their beverage—it is safe to drink coffee

which one of the following points to a weakness in the reasoning in the press release s argument?

(a) the review was only an evaluation of studies and did not itself undertake to study patients.

(b) the health of the heart is not identical with the general health of the body

(d) other beverages besides coffee might contain stimulants that have some effect on the heart

(e) drinking unusually large amounts of coffee could be caused by stress that itself directly harms the heart

2. all people prefer colors that they can distinguish easily to colors that they have difficulty distinguishing. infants can easily distinguish bright colors but, unlike adults, have difficulty distinguishing subtle shades. a brightly colored toy for infants sells better than the same toy in subtle shades at the same price

which one of the following conclusions is most strongly supported by the information in the passage?

(a) infants prefer bright primary colors to bright secondary colors

(b) color is the most important factor in determining which toys an infant will prefer to play with

(d) the sales of toys ofr infants reflect the preferences of infants in at least one respect

(e) toy makers study infants to determine what colors the infants can distinguish easily

3. a group of unusual meteorites was found in shergotty. india. their structure indicates that they originated on one of the geologically active planets. mercury, venus, or mars because of mercury s proximity to the sun any material dislodged from that planet s surface would have been captured by the sun, rather than falling to earth as meteorites, nor could venus be the source of the meteorites, because its gravity would have prevented dislodged material from escaping into space the meteorites, therefore, probably fell to earth after being dislodged from mars, perhaps as the result of a collision with a large object

the argument derives its conclusion by

(a) offering a counterexample to a theory

(b) eliminating competing alternative explanations

(d) questioning an assumption

(e) abstracting a general principle from specific data

4. because quitting smoking is very stressful and leads to weight gain, it is difficult to do. the key to quitting however, may be as simple as replacing an unhealthy activity with a healthy one in one study half of htose attempting to quit were assigned to a smoking-cessation program alone, and the other half were assigned to the same program plus fifteen weeks of aerobic exercise the one-month mark none in the first group had quit but 40 percent of those in the second group had not smoked

each of the following, if true, provides some support for the argument except:

(a) regular exercise prevents weight gain

(b) each group in the study included four hundred randomly selected participants

(d) aerobic exercise can stimulate the brain s production of endorphins. which reduce tension

(e) of those in the second group in the study 38 percent had not smoked at the one-year mark.

5. altogethe, the students in ms. tarnowski s milton elementary school class collected more aluminum cans than did the students in any of the school s other classes therefore, the milton student who collected the most aluminum cans was in ms tarnowski s class

which one of the following arguments contains flawed reasoning that is most paralled to that in the argument above?

(a) altogether, more trees were planted by the students in mr kelly s class than were planted by those in mr liang s class and mr jackson s class combined therefore. mr kelly s students planted more trees than mr jackson s students planted

(b) more than half of milton elementary school s students play in the band and more than half of the school s students sing in the choir therefore, every student at milton elementary school either plays in the band or sings in the choir

(c) mr rowe s milton elementary school class raised more money by selling candy bars than ms hunt s class raised by holding a raffle. therefore, the number of candy bars sold by mr rowe s class was greater than the number of raffle tickets sold by ms. hunt s class

(d) the total number of tickets to the school fair sold by the students in ms. ramirez s milton elementary school class was greater than the number sold by milton students from any other class. therefore, the milton student who sold the most tickets to the school fair was a student in ms rairez s class

(e) ms. ventura s milton elementary school class assembled more birdhouses than did any of the school s other classes. since ms ventura s class had fewer students than any other milton class, her students assembled more birdhouse on average than did the students in any other milton class

6. several excellent candidates have been proposed for the presidency of united wire and each candidate would bring to the job different and experience if the others are compared with jones however it will be apparent that none of them has her unique set of qualifications jones therefore is best qualified to be the new president of united wire

the argument is vulnerable to criticism on the ground that it

(a) uses flattery to win over those who hold an opposing position

(b) refutes a distorted version of an opposing position

(d) supports universal claim on the basis of a single example

(e) describes an individual in terms that appropriately refer only to the group as a whole

7. a neighborhood groupp plans to protest the closing of the neighborhood s only recreation center on the grounds that to do so would leave the neighborhood without local access to a recreation center ”our neighborhood already has the most residents per center of any neighborhood in the city“ complained one resident, ”and closing this center would make the situation unacceptable since access to recreational facilities is a necessity for this neighborhood“

each of the following if true weakens the resident s argument except

(a) a large number of the neighborhood s residents are unable to travel outside their locality to gain access to recreational facilities

(b) children, the main users of recreational facilities make up a disproportionately small segment of the neighborhood s population

(d) programs that are routinely filled at other recreation centers must be canceled at the ngighborhood s recreation center due to lack of interest

(e) as people become more involved in computers and computer games recreation centers are becoming increasingly less important

8. sociologist: the claim that there is a large number of violent crimes in our society is false, for this claim is based upon the large number of stories in newspapers about violent crimes. but since violent crimes are very rare occurrences, newspapers are likely to print stories about them.

the sociologist s argument is flawed because it

(a) presupposes that most newspaper stories are about violent crime

(b) presupposes the truth of the conclusion it is attempting to establish

(d) mistakes property of each member of a group taken as an individual for a property of the group taken as a whole

(e) uncritically draws an inference from what has been true in the past to what will be true in the future

9. historian anyone who thinks that the terrors of the ancient rgeime of q were exclusively the work of fanatics is overlooking a basic truth the regime was made up primarily of ordinary people enthusiasically seeking paradist. the regime executed many people in pursuit of its goal. but it later became clear that paradise as they defined it, is unrealizable so at least some of the ordinary people of q were in fact murdreers

which one of the following principles, if valid, provides the most support for the historian s argumentation?

(a) the pursuit of paradise does not justify murder

(b) the pursuit of paradise justifies fanaticism

(d) fanaticism in pursuit of paradise constitutes inhumanity

(e) enthusiasm in pursuit of what is eventually found to be unattainable constitutes fanaticism

10. economist: the economy seems to be heading out of recession. recent figures show that consumers are buying more durable goods than before indicating that they expect economic growth in the near future

that consumers are buying more durable goods than before figures in the economist s argument in which one of the following ways?

(a) it is the phenomenon that the argument seeks to explain

(b) its truth is required in order for the argument s conclusion to be true

(d) it is an inference drawn from the premise that consumers expect economic growth in the near future

(e) it is the primary evidence from which the argument s conclusion is drawn

11. not surprisingly, there are no professors under the age of eighteen and as is well known no one under eighteen can vote legally. finally some brilliant people are professors some are legal voters and some are under eighteen

if the statements above are true, then on the basis of them which one of the following must also be true?

(a) no professors are eighteen-year-olds

(b) all brilliant people are either professors legal voters or under eighteen

(d) some professors are neither legal voters not brilliant people

(e) some brilliant people are neither professors nor legal voters

12. for years scientists have been scanning the skies in the hope of finding life on other planets. but in spite of the ever-increasing sophistication of the equipment they employ, some of it costing hundreds of millions of dollars not the first shred of evidence of such life has been forthcoming and there is no reason to think that these scientists will be any more successful in the future no matter how much money is invested in the search the dream of finding extraterrestrial life is destined to remain a dream as science s experience up to this point should indicate

which one of the following most accurately states the main point of the argument?

(a) there is no reason to believe that life exists on other planets

(b) the equipment that scientists employ is not as sophisticated as it should be

(d) only if scientists had already found evidence of life on other planest would continued search be justified

(e) we should not spend money on sophisticated equipment to aid in the search for extraterrestrial life

13. carl s coffee emporium stocks only two decaffeinated coffees: french roast and mocha java yusef only serves decaffeinated coffee and the coffee he served after dineer last night was smooth and mellow have been french roast so if yusef still gets all his coffee from carl s what he served last night was mocha java

the argument above is most similar in its logical structure to which one of the following?

(a) samuel wants to take three friends to the beach his mother wons both a sedan and a convertible the convertible holds four people so although the sedan has a more powerful engine, if samuel borrows a vehicle from his mother he will borrow the convertible

(b) if anna wants to walk from her house to the office where she works she must either go through the park or take the overpass across the railroad tracks the park paths are muddy and anna does not like using the overpass so the never walks to work

(c) rose can either take a two-week vaction the trail she had planned to hike requires three weeks to complete but is closed by october so if rose takes a vacation it will not be the one she had planned

(d) werdix, inc has offered arno a choice between a job in sales and a job in research arno would like to work at werdix but he would never take a job in sales when another job is available so if he accepts on of these jobs it will be the one in research

(e) if teresa does not fire her assistant her staff will rebel and her department s efficiency will decline losing her assistant would also reduce its efficiency so if no alternative solution can be found theresa s department will become less efficient

14. steven the allowable blood alcohol level for drivers should be cut in half with this reduced limit, social drinkers will be deterred from drinking and driving, resulting in significantly increased highway safety

miguel: no lowering the current allowable blood alcohol level would have little effect on highway statey because it would not address the most important aspect of the drunken driving problem which is the danger to the public posed by heavy drinkers who often drive with a blood alcohol level of twice the current legal limit.

steven and miguel s statements provide the most support for that they would disagree about the truth of which one of the following statements?

(a) social drinkers who drink and drive pose a substantial threat to the public

(b) there is a direct correlation between a driver s blood alcohol level and the driver s ability to drive safely

(d) some drivers whose blood alcohol level is lower than the current legal limit pose a danger to the public

(e) a driver with a blood alcohol level slightly greater than half the current legal limit poses no danger to the public

questions 15-16

the authors of a recent article examined warnings of an impending wave of extinctions of animal species within the next 100 years. these authors say that no evidence exists to support the idea that the rate of extinction of animal species is now accelerating. they are wrong however consider only the data on fishes 40 species and subspecies of north american fishes have vanished in the twentieth century, 13 between 1900 and 1950, and 27 since 1950

15. which one of the following is the main point of the argument?

(a) there is evidence that the rate of extinction of animal species is accelerating

(b) the future rate of extinction of animal species cannot be determined from available evidence

(c) the rate of extinction of north american fishes is parallel to the rate of extinction of all animal species taken together

(d) forty species and subspecies of north american fishes have vanished in the twentieth century

(e) a substantial number of fish species are in danger of imminent extinction

16. the answer to which one of the following questions would contribute most to an evaluation of the argument?

(a) were the fish species and subspecies that became extinct unrepresenatative of animal species in general with regard to their pattern of extinction?

(b) how numerous were the populations in 1950 of the species and subspecies of north american fishes that have become extinct since 1950?

(c) did any of the species or subspecies of north american fishes that became extinct in the twentieth century originate in regions outside of north america?

(d) what proportion of north american fish species and subspecies whose populations were endangered in 1950 are now thriving?

(e) were any of the species or subspecies of north american fishes that became extinct in the twentiethe century commercially important?

17. after the second world war, the charter of the newly formed united nations established an eleven-member security council and charged it with taking collective action in response to threats to world peace. the charter further provided that the five nations that were then the major powers would permanently have sole authority to cast vetoes. the reason given for this arrangement was that the burden of maintaining world peace would rest on the world s major powes and should be required to assume the burden of enforcing a decision it found repugnant

the reasoning given for the structure of the security council assumes that

(a) it does not make sense to provide for democracy among nations when nations themselves are not all democracies

(b) no nation that was not among the major powers at the end of the second world war would become a major power

(c) nations would not eventually gravitate into large geographical bloes, each containing minor powers as well as at least one major power

(d) minor powers would not ally themselves with major powers to gain the prection of the veto exercised by major powers

(e) decisions reached by a majority of nations in response to threats to world peace would be biased in favor of one or more major powers

18. environmental scientist: it is true that over the past ten years, there has been a sixfold increase in government funding for the preservation of wetlands while the total area of wetlands needing such preservation has increased only twofold (although this area was already large ten years ago) even when inflation is taken into account, the amount of funding now is at least three times what it was ten years ago. nevertheless the current amount of government funding for the preservation of wetlands is inadequate and should be augmented

which one of the following, if true most helps to reconcile the environmental scientist s conclusion with the evidence cited above?

(a) the governmental agency responsible for administering wetland-preservation funds has been consistently mismanaged and run inefficiently over the past ten years

(b) over the past ten years, the salaries of scientists employed by the government to work on the preservation of wetlands have increased at a rate higher than the inflation rate

(c) research over the past ten years has enabled scientists today to identify wetlands in need of preservation well before the areas are at serious risk of destruction

(d) more people today scientists and nonscientists alike, are working to preserve all natural resources including wetlands

(e) unlike today funding for the preservation of wetlands was almost nonexistent ten years ago.

19. in australia the population that is of driving age has grown large over the last five years, but the annual number of traffic fatalities has declined. this leads to the conclusion that, overall, the driving-age population of australi consists of more skillful drivers now than five years ago.

each of the statements below, if true, weakens the argument except:

(a) three years ago, a mandatory seat-belt law went into effect throughout australia.

(b) five years ago. australia began a major road repair project

(d) the number of hospital emergency facilities in australia has doubled in the last five years

(e) in response to an increase in traffic fatalities. australia instituted a program of mandatory driver education five years ago.

20. anthropological studies indicate that distinct cultures differs in their moral codes. thus, as long as there are distinct cultures there are no values shared across cultures

each of the following, if true, would weaken the argument except”

(a) anthropologists rely on inadequate translation techniques to investigate the values of cultures that use languages different from the anthropologists languages.

(b) as a result of advancing technology and global communication we will someday all share the same sulture and the same values

(c) although specific moral values differ across cultures, more general moral principles, such as “friendship is good” are common to all cultures

(d) the anthropologists who have studied various cultures have been biased in favor of finding differences rather than similarities between distinct cultures

(e) what appear to be differences in values between distinct cultures are nothing more than differences in beliefs about how to live in accordance with shared values.

21. newspaper editor. law enforcenment experts, as well as most citizens, have finally come to recognize that legal prohibitions against gambling all share a common flaw no matter how diligent the effort, the laws are impossible to enforce. ethical qualms notwithstanding, when a law fails to be effective it should not be a law. that is why there should be no legal prohibition against gambling.

which one of the following if assumed. allows the argument s conclusion to be properly drawn?

(a) no effective law is unenforceable

(b) all enforceable laws are effective

(d) most citizens must agree with a law for the law to be effective

(e) most citizens must agree with a law for the law to be enforceable.

22. copernicus s astronomical system is superior to ptolemy s and was so at the time it was proposed, even though at that time all observational evidence was equally consistent with both theories. ptolemy believed that the stars revolved around the earth at great speeds. this struck copernicus as unlikely, he correctly thought that a simpler theory is that the earth rotates on its axis.

the argument most closely conforms to which one of the following principles?

(a) simplicity should be the sole deciding factor in choosing among competing scientific theories

(b) if one theory is likely to be true, and another competing theory is likely to be false, then the one likely to be true is the superior of the two.

(c) if all observational evidence is consistent with two competing theories, the one that is more intuitively true is the more practical theory to adopt.

(d) other things being equal the more complex of two competing theories is the inferior theory

(e) other things being equal, the simpler of two competing theories is the more scientifically important theory.

23. easayist the existence of a moral order in the universe—i.e..an order in which bad is always eventually punished and good rewarded—depends upon human souls being immortal. in some cultures this moral order is regarded as the result of a karma that controls how one is reincarnated, in others it results from the actions of a supreme being who metes out justice to people after their death. but however a moral order is represented if human souls are immortal then if follows that the bad will be punished

which one of the following most accurately describes a flaw in the essayist s reasoning?

(a) from the assertion that something is necessary to a moral order the argument concludes that that thing is sufficient for an element of the moral order to be realized

(b) the argument takes mere beliefs to be established facts

(c) from the claim that the immortality of human souls implies that there is a moral order in the universe the argument concludes that there being a moral order in the universe implies that human souls are immortal

(d) the argument treats two fundamentally different conceptions of a moral order as essentially the same

(e) the argument s conclusion is presupposed in the definition it gives of a moral order.

24. no mathematical proposition can be proven true by observation. it follows that it is impossible to know any mathematical proposition to be true

the conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?

(a) only propositions that can be proven true can be known to be true

(b) observation alone cannot be used to prove the truth of any proposition

(d) knowing a proposition to be true is impossible only if it cannot be prove true by observation

(e) knowing a proposition to be true requires proving it true by observation

25. the publisher of a best-selling self-help book had, in some promotional material, claimed that it showed readers how to become exceptionally successful. of course everyone knows that no book can deliver to the many what by definition, must remain limited to the few exceptional success. thus although it is clear that the publisher knowingly made a false claim. doing so should not be considered unethical in this case

which one of the following principles if valid most strongly supports the reasoning above?

(a) knowingly making a false claim is unethical only if it is reasonable for people to accept the claim as true

(b) knowingly making a false claim is unethical if those making it derive a gain at the expense of those acting as if the claim were true.

(c) knowingly making a false claim is unethical in only those cases in which those who accept the claim as true suffer a hardship greater than the gain they were anticipating

(d) knowingly making a false claim is unethical only if there is a possibility that someone will act as if the claim might be true

(e) knowingly making a false claim is unethical in at least those cases in which for someone else to discover that the claim is false that person must have acted as if the claim were true

篇5：LSAT考试全真试题四SECTION1

section 1

time—35 minutes

27 questions

directions: each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated for implied in the passage. for some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question however you jare to choose the best answer. that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

to many developers of technologies that affect public health or the environment. “risk communication” means persuading the public that the potential risks of such technologies are small and

(5) should be ignored. those who communicate risks in this way seem to believe that lay people do not understand the actual nature of technological risk. and they can cite studies asserting that. although people apparently ignore mundane hazards that pose

(10) significant danger, they get upset about exotic hazards that pose little chance of death or injury. because some risk communicators take this persuasive stance, many lay people see “risk communication” as a euphemism for brainwashing done by experts

(15)since however the goal of risk communication should be to enable people to make informed decisions about technological risks, a clear understanding about how the public perceives risk is needed. lay people s definitions of “risk” are more likely to reflect

(20) subjective ethical concerns than are experts definitions lay people for example tend to perceive a small risk to children as more significant than a large risk to consenting adults who benefit from the risk-creating technology. however, if asked to rank hazards

(25) by the number of annual fatalities, without reference to ethical judgments, lay people provide quite reasonalbe estimates, demonstrating that they have substantial knowledge about many risks. although some studies claim to demonstrate that lay people have inappropriate

(30) concerns about exotic hazards. these studies often use questionable methods, such as asking lay people to rank risks that are hard to compare, in contrast, a recent study showed that when lay people were given the necessary facts and time they understood the specific

(35) risks of electromagnetic fields produced by high-voltage power transmission well enough to make informed decisions

risk communication should therefore be based on the principle that people process new information in

(40) the context of their existing beliefs. if people know nothing about a topic they will find messages about that topic incomprehensible, if they have erroneous beliefs, they are likely to misconstrue the messages. thus, communicators need to know the nature and

(45) extent of recipients knowledge and beliefs in order to design messages that will not be dismissed or misinterpreted. this need was demonstrated in a research project concerning the public s level of knowledge about risks posed by the presence of radon

(50) in the home. researchers used open-ended interviews and questionnaires to determine what information should be included in their brochure on radon. subjects who read the researchers brochure performed significantly better in understanding radon risks than significantly better in understanding radon risks than

(55) did a control group who read a brochure that was written using a different approach by a government agency. thus, careful preparation can help risk communicators to produce balanced material that tells people what they need to know to make decisions

(60) about technological risks

1. which one of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?

(a) risk communicators are effectively addressing the proloferation of complex technologies that have increasing impact on public health and safety.

(b) risk communicators should assess lay people s understanding of technologies in order to be able to give them the information they need to make reasonable decisions.

(c) experts who want to communicate to the public about the possible risks of complex technologies must simplify their message to ensure that it is understandable

(d) risk communication can be perceived as the task of persuading lay people to accept the impact of a particular technology on their lives.

(e) lay people can be unduly influenced by subjective concerns when making decisions about technological risks.

2. the authors of the passage would be most likely to agree that the primary purpose of risk communication should be to

(a) explain rather than to persuade

(b) promote rather than to justify

(d) allay people s fears about mundane hazards rather than about exotic hazards.

(e) foster public acceptance of new technologies rather than to acknowledge people s ethical concerns

3. according to the passage,it is probable that which one of the following will occur when risk communicators attempt to communicate with lay people who have mistaken ideas about a particular technology?

(a) the lay people perceiving that the risk communicators have provided more- reliable information, will discard their mistaken notion

(b) the lay people will only partially revise their ideas on the basis of the new information

(c) the lay people fitting the new information into their existing framework will interpret the communication differently that the risk communicators had intended

(d) the lay people misunderstanding the new infromation will further distort the information when they communicate it to other lay people

(e) the lay people will ignore any communication about a technology they consider potentially dangerous

4. which one of the following is most clearly an example of the kind of risk perception discussed in the “studies” mentioned in line 8?

(a) a skydiver checks the lines on her parachute several times before a jump because tangled lines often keep the parachutes from opening properly

(b) a person decides to quit smoking in order to lesson the probability of lung damage to himself and his family

(d) a person who often weaves in and out of traffic while driving his car at excessive speeds worries about meteorites hitting his house

(e) a group of townspeople opposes the building of a nuclear waste dump outsider their town and proposes that the dump be placed in another town.

5. it can be inferred that the authors of the passage would be more likely than would the risk communicators discussed in the first paragraph to emphasize which one of the following?

(a) lay people s tendency to become alarmed about technologies that they find new or strange

(b) lay people s tendency to compare risks that experts would not consider comparable

(d) the inability of lay people to rank hazards by the number of fatalities caused annually

(e) the impact of lay people s value systems on their perceptions of risk.

6. according to the passage many lay people believe which one of the following about risk communication?

(a) it focuses excessively on mundane hazards

(b) it is a tool used to manipulate the publie

(d) it most often funcitions to help people make informed decisions

(e) its level of effectiveness depends on the level of knowledge its audience already has

in april 1990 representatives of the pico korea union of electronics workers in buchon city, south korea, traveled to the united states in order to demand just settlement of their claims from the parent company

(5) of their employers. who upon the formation of the union had shut down operations without paying the workers from the beginning the union cause was championed by an unprecedented coalition of korean american groups and deeply affected the korean american

(10) community on several levels.

first, it served as a rallying focus for a diverse community often divided by generation, class and political ideologies. most notably, the pico cause mobilized many young second-generation korean

(15) americans, many of whom had never been part of a political campaign before, let alone one involving korean issues. members of this generation unlike first-generation korean americans, generally fall within the more privileged sectors of the korean american

(20) community and often feel alienated from their korean roots in addition to raising the political consciousness of young korean americans, the pico struggle sparked among them new interest in their cultural identity the pieo workers also suggested new roles that can be

(25) played by recent immigrants, particularly working-class immigrants these immigrants knowledge of working conditions overseas can help to globalize the perspective of their communities and can help to establish international ties on a more personal level, as

(30) winessed in the especially warm exchange between the pico workers and recent working-class immigrants from china in addition to broadening the political base within the korean american community, the pico struggle also led to new alliances between the korean

(35) american community and prograessive labor and social justice groups within the larger society—as evidenced in the support received from the coalition of labor union women and leading african american uniontsts.

(40) the reasons for these effects lie in the nature of the cause the issues raised by the pico unionists had such a strong human component that differences within the community became secondary to larger concerns for social justice and workers rights the workers

(45) demands for compensation and respect were unencumbered with strong ideological trappings the economic exploitation faced by the pico workers underscored the common interests of korean workers korean americans, the working class more inclusively

(50) and a broad spectrum of community leaders

the pico workers campaign thus offers an important lesson. it demonstrates that ethnic communities need more than just a knowledge of history and cuture as artifacts of the past in order to

(55) strengthen their ethnic identity. it shows that perhaps the most effective means of empowerment for many ethnic communities of immigrant derivation may be an identification with and participation in current struggles for economic and social justice in their

(60) countries of origin.

7. which one of the following best describes the main topic of the passage?

(a) the contribution of the korean american community to improving the working conditions of koreans employed by united states companies

(b) the change brought about in the korean american community by contacts with koreans visiting the united states

(d) the effects on the korean american community of a dispute between korean union workers and a united states company

(e) the effect of the politicization of second-generation korean americans on the korean american community as a whole

8. the passage suggests that which one of the following was a significant factor in the decision to shut down the pico plant in buchon city?

(a) the decreasing profitability of maintaining operations in korea

(b) the failure to resolve long-standing disputes between the pico workers and management

(d) the withholding of workers wages by the parent company

(e) the finding of an alternate site for operations

9. which one of the following is not mentioned in the passage as a recent development in the korean american community?

(a) young second-generation korean americans have begun to take an interest in their korean heritage

(b) recent korean american immigrants of working-class backgrounds have begun to enter the more privileged sectors of the korean american community

(d) previously nonpolitical members of teh korean american community have become more politically active

(e) the korean american community has been able to set aside political and generational disparities in order to support a common cause

10. it can be inferred that the author of the passage would most likely agree with which one of the following statements about ethnic communities of immigrant derivation?

(a) such communities can derive important benefits from maintaining ties with their countries of origin

(b) such communities should focus primarily on promoting study of the history and culture of their people in order to strengthen their ethnic identity

(c) such communities can most successfully mobilize and politicize their young people by addressing the problems of voung people of all backgrounds

(d) the more privileged sectors of such communities are most likely to maintain a sense of closeness to their cultural roots.

(e) the politicization of such a community is unlikely to affect relations with other groups within the larger society

11. in the second paragraph, the author refers to immigrants from china most probably in order to do which one of the following?

(a) highlight the contrast between working conditions in the united states and in korea

(b) demonstrate the uniqueness of the problem faced by the pico workers.

(d) provide an analogy for the type of activism displayed by the korean american community

(e) compare the disparate responses of two immigrant communities to similar problems.

12. the primary purpose of the passage is to

(a) describe recent developments in the korean american community that have strongly affected other ethnic communities of immigrant derivation

(b) describe a situation in the korean american community that presents a model for the empowerment of ethnic communities of immigrant derivation

(c) detial the problems faced by the korean american community in order to illustrate the need for the empowerment of ethnic communities of immigrant derivation

(d) argue against economic and social injustice in the countries of origin of ethnic communities of immigrant derivation

(e) assess the impact of the unionization movement on ethnic communities of immigrant derivation

13. which one of the following most accurately states the function of the third paragraph?

(a) it explains why the pico workers brought their cause to the united states

(b) it explains how the pico cause differed from other causes that had previously mobilized the korean american community

(d) it explains how other ethnic groups of immigrant derivation in the united states have profited from the example of the pico workers?

(e) it expains why different generations of korean americans reacted in different ways to the pico cause

in recent years, scholars have begun to use social science tools to analyze court opinions. these scholars have justifiably criticized traditional legal research for its focus on a few cases that may not be representative

(5) and its fascination with arcane matters that do not affect real people with real legal problems. zirkel and schoenfeld, for example, have championed the application of social science tools to the analysis of case law surrounding discrimination against women in

(10) higher education employment their studies have demonstrated how these social science tools may be used to serve the interests of scholars lawyers and prospective plaintiffs as well however their enthustasm for the outcomes analysts technique

(15) seems misguided

of fundamental concern is the outcomes analysts assumption that simply counting the number of successful and unsuccessful plaintiffs will be useful to prospective plaintiffs although the odds are clearly

(20) against the plaintiff in sex discrimination cases, plaintiffs who believe that their cause is just and that they will prevail are not swayed by such evidence, in addition, because lawsuits are so different in the details of the case in the quality of the evidence the plantiff

(25) presents and in the attitude of the judge toward academic plaintiffs giving prospective plaintiffs statisties about overall outcomes without analyzing the reason for these outcomes is of marginal assistance outcomes analysis for example ignores the fact that in

(30) certain academie sex discrimination cases—those mvolving serious procedural violations or meriminating evidence in the form of written admissions of discriminatory practices—plaintiffs are much more likely to prevail

(35) two different approaches offer more useful applications of social science tools in analyzing sex discrimination cases one is a process called “policy capturing” in which the researcher reads each opinion identifies variables discussed in the opinion such as

(40) the regularity of employer evaluations of the plaintiff performance training of evaluatots and the kind of evaluation instrument used and then uses multrvariate analvsis to determine whether these variables predict the outcome of the lawsuit the advantage of ploicy

(45) capturing research is that it attempts to explain the reason for the outcome, rather than simply reporting the outcome and identifies factors that contribute to a plaintiff s success or failure taking a slightly different approach, other scholars have adopted a technique that

(50) requires reading complete transcripts of all sex discrmination cases litigated during a certain time period to identify variables such as the nature of the allegedly illegal conduct the consequences for employers and teh nature of the remedy as well as the

(55) factors that contributed to the verdict and the kind of evidence necessary for the plaintiff to prevail while the findings of these studies are limited to the period covered they assist potential plaintiffs and defendants in assessing their cases.

14. which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?

(a) the analysis of a limited number of atypical discrimination suits of little value to potential plaintiffs

(b) when the number of factors analyzed in a sex discrimination suit is increased the validity of the conclusions drawn becomes suspect

(c) scholars who are critical of traditional legal research frequently offer alternative approaches that are also seriously flawed

(d) outcomes analysis has less predictive value in sex discrimination cases than do certain other social science techniques

(e) given adequate information, it is possible to predict with considerable certainty whether a plaintiff will be successful in a discrimination suit

15. it can be inferred from the author s disccussion of traditional legal research that the author is

(a) frustrated because traditional legal research has not achieved its full potential

(b) critical because traditional legal research has little relevance to those actually involved in cases

(d) derisive because traditional legal research has outlasted its previously significant role

(e) grateful for the ability of traditional legal ressearch to develop unique types of evidence

16. which one of the following statements about zirkel and schoenfeld can be inferred from the passage?

(a) they were the first scholars to use social science tools in amlyzing legal cases

(b) they confined their studies to the outcomes analysis technique.

(d) they rejected policy capturing as being too limited in scope

(e) they believed that the information generated by outcomes analysis would be relevant for plaintiffs.

17. the author s characterization of traditional legal research in the first paragraph is intended to

(a) provide background information for the subsequent discussion

(b) summarize an opponent s position

(d) emphasize the fact that legal researchers act to the detriment of potential plaintiffs

(e) reconcile traditional legal researchers to the use of social science tools.

18. the information in the passage suggests that plaintiffs who pursue sex discrimination cases despite the statisties provided by outcomes analysis can best be likened to

(a) athletes who continue to employ training techniques despite their knowledge of statistical evidence indicating that these techniques are ulikely to be effective

(b) lawyers who handle lawsuits for a large number of clients in the hope that some percentage will be successful

(d) supporters of a cause who recruit individuals sympathetic to it in the belief that large numbers of supporters will lend the cause legitimacy

(e) purchasers of a charity s raffle tickets who consider the purchase a contribution because the likelihood of winning is temote

19. the policy-capturing approach differs from the approach described in lines 48-59 in that the latter approach

(a) makes use of detailed information on a greater number of cases

(b) focuses more directly on issues of concern to litigants

(d) allows assessment of aspects of a case that are not specifically mentioned in a judge s opinion

(e) eliminates any distortion due to personal bias on the part of the researcher

20. which one of the following best describes the organizatin of the passage?

(a) a technique is introduced, its shortcomings are summarized, and alternatives are described

(b) a debate is introduced, evidence is presented, and a compromise is reached

(d) standards are established, hypothetical examples are analyzed, and the criteria are amended

(e) a position is challenged, its shortcomings are categorized, and the challenge is revised.

a fake can be defined as an artwork intended to deceive. the motives of its creator are decisive, and the merit of the object itself is a separate issue. the question mark in the title of mark jones s fake? the

(5) arl of deception reveals the study s broader concerns indeed, it might equally be entitled original? and the text begins by noting a variety of possibilities somewhere between the two extremes. these include works by an artist s followers in the style of the master.

(10) deliberate archaism, copying for pedagogical purposes, and the production of commercial facsimiles

the greater part of fake? is devoted to a chronological survey suggesting that faking feeds on the many different motives people have for collecting

(15) art, and that, on the whole, the faking of art flourishes whenever art collecting flourishes. in imperial rome there was a widespread interest in collecting earlier greek art, and therefore in faking it. no doubt many of the seulptures now exhibited as “roman copies” were

(20) originally passed off as greek. in medieval europe. because art was celebrated more for its devotional uses than for its provenance or the ingenuity of its creators the faking of art was virtually nonexistent. the modern age of faking began in the ltalian renaissance, with

(25) two linked developments a passionate identification with the world of antiquity and a growing sense of individual artistie identity a patron of the young michelangelo prevailed upon the artist to make his seulpture sleeping chpld look as though it had been

(30) buried in the earth so that “it will be taken for antique, and you will sell it much better.” within a few years however beginning with his first masterpiece the bacchus, michelangelo had shown his contemporaries that great art can assimilate and transcend what came

(35) before resulting in a wholly original work. soon his genius made him the object of imitators.

fake? also reminds us that in certain cuitures authenticity is a foreign concept this is true of much african art when the authenticity of an object is

(40) considered by collectors to depend on its function as an illustration, the study commpares two versions of a chi wara mask made by the bambara people of mali one has pegs allowing it to be attached to a cap for its intended ceremonial purpose. the second, otherwise

(45) identical, lacks the pegs and is a replica made for sale african carving is notoriously difficult to date, but even if the ritual mask is recent, made perhaps to replace a damaged predecessor, and the replica much older, only the ritual mask should be seen as authentic

(50) for it is tied to the form s original function. that at least is the consensus of the so-called experts. one wonders whether the bambaran artists would agree

21. the passage can best be described as doing which one of the following?

(a) recondciling varied points of view

(b) chronicling the evolution of a phenomenon

(d) advocating a new approach

(e) rejecting an inadequate explanation

22. which one of the following best expresses the author s main point?

(a) the faking of art has occurred throughout history and in virtually every culture.

(b) whether a work of art is fake or not is less important than whether it has artistic merit

(d) a variety of circumstances make it difficult to determine whether a work of art can appropriately be called a fake

(e) without an international market to support it, the faking of art would cease.

23. according to the passage an artwork can be definitively classified as a fake if the person who created it

(a) consciously adopted the artistic style of an influential mentor

(b) deliberately imitated a famous work of art as a learning exercise

(d) made multiple, identical copies of the work available for sale

(e) made the work resemble the art of an earlier era.

24. the author provides at least one example of each of the following except:

(a) categories of art that are neither wholly fake not wholly original

(b) cultures in which the faking of art flourished

(d) cultures in which the categories “fake” and “original” do not apply

(e) contemporary artists whose works have inspired fakes

25. the author implies which one of the following about the artistie merits of fakes?

(a) because of the circumstances of its production a fake cannot be said to have true artistic merit

(b) a fake can be said to have artistic merit only if the attempted deception is successful

(d) whether a fake has artistic merit depends on whether its creator is accomplished as an artist

(e) the artistic merit of a fake depends on the merit of the original work that inspited the fake

26. by the standard described in the last paragraph of the passage, which one of the following would be considered authentic?

(a) an ancient roman copy of an ancient greek sculpture

(b) a painting begun by renaissance master and finished by his assistants after his death

(d) a faithful replica of a ceremonial crown that preserves all the details of and is indistinguishable from the original

(e) a modern reconstruction of a medieval altarpiece designed to serve its traditional role in a service of worship

22. which one of the following best describes how the last paragraph functions in the context of the passage?

(a) it offers a tentative answer to a question posed by the author in the opening paragraph

(b) it summarizes an account provided in detail in the preceding paragraph

(d) it examines another facet of a distinction developed in the preceding paragraphs

(e) it affirms the general principle enunciated at the beginning of the passage

篇6：LSAT考试全真试题四SECTION3

section iii

time—35 minutes

26 questions

directions: the questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. for some questions more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question.however, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. you should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible,superfluous, or incompatible with the passage after you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

1. francis: pailure to become properly registered to vote prevents one-third of the voting-age citizens of lagonia from voting. if local election boards made the excessively cumbersome registration process easier. more people would register and vote

sharon: the high number of citizens not registered to vote has persisted despite many attempts to make registering easier. surveys show that most of these citizens believe that their votes would not make a difference. until that belief is changed, simplifying the registration process will not increase the percentage of citizens registering to vote

the main issue in dispute between francis and sharon is

(a) whether changing the voter registration process would be cumbersome

(b) why so many citizens do not register to vote

(d) whether local election boards have simplified the registration process

(e) why the public lacks confidence in the effects of voting

2. advertisement anyone who thinks moisturizers are not important for beautiful skin should consider what happens to the earth, the skin of the word, in times of drought. without regular infusions of moisture the ground becomes lined and cracked and its lush loveliness fades away. thus your skin, too, should be protected from the protection provided by regular infusions of dewyfresh the drought-defying moisturizer.

the dewyfresh advertisement exhibits which one of the following errors of reasoning?

(a) it treats something that is necessary for bringing about a state of affairs as something that is sufficient to bring about that state of affairs

(b) it treats the fact that two things regularly occur together as proof that there is a single thing that is the cause of them both

(d) it relies on the ambiguity of the term “infusion.” which can designate either a process or the product of that process

(e) it relies on an analogy between two things that are insufficiently alike in the respects in which they would have to be alike for the conclusion to be supported.

questions 3-4

m: the greek alphabet must have been invented by some individual who knew the phoenician writing system and who wanted to have some way of recording homeric epies and thereby preserving expressions of a highly developed traditin of oral poetry.

p: your hypothesis is laughable! what would have been the point of such a person s writing homeric epices down? surely a person who knew them well enough to write them down would not need to read them, and no one else could read them, according to your hypothesis.

3. which one of the following is an argumentative strategy that p uses in responding to m?

(a) attacking m s understanding of the literary value of oral poetry

(b) disagreeing with m s thesis without attempting to refute it

(d) attempting to undermine m s hypothesis by making it appear absurd

(e) providing an alternative interpretation of evidence put forward by m

4. p s argument is vulnerable to which one of the following criticisms?

(a) it fails to demonstrate that the phoenician alphabet alone could have provided the basis for the greek alphabet

(b) it incorrectly assumes that the first text ever written in greek was a homeric poem

(d) it attempts to demonstrate the truth of a hypothesis merely by showing that it is possible.

(e) it overlooks the possibility that person who invented the greek alphabet did so with the intention of teaching it to others.

5. bacteria from food can survive for several days on the surface of plastic cutting boards, but bacteria can penetrate wooden cutting boards almost immediately, leaving the surface free of contamination. therefore, wooden cutting boards, unlike plastic cutting boards, need not be washed in order to prevent their conta-minating food that is cut on them; wiping them off to remove food debris is sufficient.

which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

(a) washing plastic cutting boards does not remove all bacteria from the surface

(b) prevention of bacterial contamination is the only respect in which wooden cutting boards are superior to plastic cutting boards.

(c) food that is not already contaminated with bacteria can be contaminated only by being cut on contaminated cutting boards.

(d) bacteria that penetrate into wooden cutting boards do not reemerge on the surface after the cutting boards have been used

(e) washing wooden cutting boards kills bacteria below the surface of the cutting boards.

6. asthmagon was long considered the most effective of the drugs known as beta-2 agonists, designed to alleviate asthma attacks. however. studies conducted in rhiago between 1981 and 1987 revealed that nearly one out of every five of the asthma patients under observation who took asthmagon suffered serious side effects after taking the drug. citing this statistic. some docotors argue that asthmagon should be banned as an anti-asthma drug.

which one of the following, if true, most weakens the case for the proposed ban of asthmagon?

(a) in rhiago, where asthmagon had been the most widely prescribed of the beta-2 agonists, the number of asthma deaths increased between 1981 and 1987.

(b) many of the patients under observation to whom asthmagon was administered had not previously taken a beta-2 agonist

(d) among the patients observed, only those who had very high cholesterol counts suffered side effects after taking asthmagon

(e) asthmagon increases the severity of asthma attacks in some people because the drug can cause damage to heart tissues

7. in response to requests made by the dairy industry the government is considering whether to approve the synthetic hormone bst for use in dairy cows bst increases milk production but also leads to recurring udder inflammation decreased fertility,and symptoms of stress in cows who receive the hormone all of these problems can be kept under control with constant veterinary care but such levels of veterinary help would cost big farms far less per cow than they would small farms

if the statements above are true which one of the following clams is most strongly supported by them?

(a) the government is unlikely to approve the synthetic hormone bst for use in cows

(b) the proportion of cows that suffer from udder infiammation, decreased fertility, and symptoms of stress is currently greater on big dairy farms than on small ones

(d) the milk from cows who receive bst will not be safe for people to drink

(e) owners of big farms stand to gain more from government approval of bst than do owners of small farms

8. jones is selling a house to smith the contract between the two specifies that for up to a year after ownership is transferred. jones will be responsible for repairing any “major structural defects.” defined as defects in the roof or roff-supporting components of the house that might be found jones is not responsible for any other repairs the house has a truss roof which means that the only walls that support the roof are the exterior walls.

it can be properly concluded from the information above that

(a) jones did not know of any defects in the roof or roof-supporting components of the house at the time the contract was written

(b) although other components of the house may contain defects the roof and roof-supporting components of the house are currently free from such defects

(c) the contract does not oblige jones to repair any defects in the house s nonexterior walls after ownership of the house has been transferred

(d) smith will be obliged to repair all structural defects in the house within a year after ownership is transferred except those for which jones is responsible

(e) in the past jones has had to make repairs to some of the house s exterior walls

9. the play mankind must have been written between 1431 and 1471. it cannot have been written before 1431 for in that year the rose noble, a coin mentioned in the play, was first circulated. the play cannot have been written after 1471 since in that year king henry vi died, and he is mentioned as a living monarch in the play s dedication

the argument would be most seriously weakened if which one of the following were discovered?

(a) the royal theatre company includes the play on a list of those performed in 1480

(b) another coin mentioned in the play was first minted in 1422

(d) although henry vi was deposed in 1461, he was briefly restored to the throne in 1470

(e) in a letter written in early 1428 a merchant told of having seen the design for a much-discussed new coin calle dthe “rose noble”

10. all material bodies are divisible into parts and everything divisible is imperfec. it follows that all material bodies are imperfect it likewise follows that the spirit is not a material body

the final conclusion above follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?

(a) everything divisible is a material body

(b) nothing imperfect is indivisible

(d) the spirit is perfect

(e) the spirit is either indivisible or imperfect

11. special kinds of cotton that grow fibers of green or brown have been around since the 1930s but only recently became commercially feasible when a long-fibered variety that can be spun by machine was finally bred since the cotton need not be dyed processing plants avoid the expense of dyeing and the ecological hazards of getting rid of icftover dye and by-products

which one fo the following can be properly inferred from the passage?

(a) it is ecologically safer to process long-fibered cotton than short-fibered cotton

(b) green and brown cottons that cna the spun only by hand are not commercially viable

(d) short-fibered regular cottons are economically competitive with synthetic fabries

(e) garments made of green and brown cottons are less expensive than garments made of regular cotton

12. people in the tourist industry know that excessive development of seaside areas by the industry damages the environment. such development also hurts the tourist industry by making these areas unattractive to tourists a fact of which people in the tourist industry are well aware people in the tourist industry would never knowingly do anything to damage the industry. therefore, they would never knowingly damage the seaside environment and people who are concerned about damage to the seaside people who are concerned about damage to the seaside environment thus have nothing to fear from the tourist industry

the reasoning in the arguments is most vulnerable to

(a) no support is provided for the claim that excessive development hurts the tourist industry

(b) that something is not the cause of a problem is used as evidence that it never coexists with that problem

(c) the argument shifts from applving a characteristie to a few membets of a group to applying the character istie to all members of that group

(d) the possibility that the tourist industry would unintentionally harm the environment is ignored

(e) the argument establishes that a certain state of affairs is likely and then treats that as evidence that the state of affairs is inveitable

13. health officials claim that because the foods and beverages mentioned or consumed on many television programs are extremely low in nutritional value watching television has a bad influence on the dietary habits of television viewers.

the claim by health officials depends on the presupposition that

(a) the eagint and drinking habits of people on television programs are designed to mirror the eating and drinking habits of television viewers

(b) seeing some foods and beverages being consumed on or hearing them mentioned on television programs mereases the likelihood that viewers will consume similar kinds of foods and beverages.

(c) the food and beverage industry finances television programs so that the foods and beverages that have recently appeared on the market can be advertised on those programs

(d) television viewers are only interested in the people on television programs who have the same eating and drinking habits as they do

(e) the eating and drinking habits of people on television programs proclde health officerals with acctuate predictions about the foods and beverages that will become popular among television viewers

14. in an effort to boost sales during the summer months, which are typically the best for soft-drink sales foamy soda lowered its prices. in spite of this, however, the sales of foamy soda dropped during the summer months.

each of the following, if true, contributes to reconciling the apparent discrepancy indicated above except:

(a) the soft-drink industry as a whole experienced depressed sales during the summer months

(b) foamy soda s competitors lowered their prices even more drastically during the summer months

(d) a strike at foamy soda s main plant forced production cutbacks that resulted in many stores not receiving their normal shipments during the summer months

(e) the weather during the summer months was unseasonably cool, decreasing the demand for soft drinks

15. dr. z.many of the characterizations of my work offered by dr.q are imprecise and such characterizations do not provide an adequate basis for sound criticism of my work

which one of the following can be properly inferred from dr. z s statement?

(a) some or dr q s characterizations of dr. z s work provide an adequate basis for sound criticism of dr. z s work

(b) all of dr q s characterizations of dr. z s work that are not imprecise provide an adequate basis for sound criticism of dr. z s work

(c) all fo the characterizations of dr. z s work by dr. q that do not provide an adequate basis for sound criticism of dr z s work are imprecise

(d) if the characterization of someone s work is precise, then it provides a sound basis for criticizing that work

(e) at least one of dr q s characterizations of dr. z s work fails to provide an adequate basis for sound criticism of that work.

16. k, a research scientist, was accused of having falsified laboratory data. although the original data in question have disappeared, data from k s more recent experiments have been examined and clearly none of them were falsified. therefore, the accusation should be dismissed.

which one of the following contains questionable reasoning that is most similar to that in the argument above?

(a) l, an accountant, was charged with having embezzled funds from a client. the charge should be ignored, however, because although the records that might reveal this embezzlement have been destroyed, records of l s current clients show clearly that there has never been any embezzlement from them.

(b) m, a factory supervisor, was accused of failing to enforce safety standards. this accusation should be discussed because although the identity of the accuser was not revealed, a survey of factory personnel revealed that some violations of the standards have occurred.

(c) n, a social scientist, was charged with plagiarism. the charge is without foundation because although strong similarities between n s book and the work of another scholar have been discovered, the other scholar s work was written after n s work was published.

(d) o, an auto mechanic has been accused of selling stolen auto parts the accusation seems to be justified since although no evidence links o directly to these sales, the pattern of distribution of the auto parts points to o as the source.

(e) p, a politician, has been accused of failing to protect the public interest. from at least some points of view, however, the accusation will undoubtedly be considered false, because there is clearly disagreement about where the public interest lies.

questions 17-18

the widespread staff reductions in a certain region s economy are said to be causing people who still have their jobs to cut back on new purchases as though they, too, had become economically distressed. clearly, however, actual spending by such people is undiminished, because there has been no unusual increase in the amount of money held by those people in savings accounts.

17. the argument in the passage proceeds by doing which one of the following?

(a) concluding that since an expected consequence of a supposed development did not take place

(b) concluding that since only one of the two predictable consequences of a certain kind of behavior is observed to occur this observed occurrence cannot, in the current situation, be a consequence of such behavior

(c) arguing that since people s economic behavior is guided by economic self- interest only misinformation or error will cause people to engage in economic behavior that harms them economically

(d) arguing that since two alternative developments exhaust all the plausible possibilities one of those developments occurred and the other did not

(e) concluding that since the evidence concerning a supposed change is ambiguous, it is most likely that no change is actually taking place.

18. which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument relies?

(a) if people in the region who continue to be employed have debts, they are not now paying them off at an accelerated rate

(b) people in the region who continue to be employed and who have relatives who have lost their jobs commonly assist those relatives financially

(c) if people in the region who have lost jobs get new jobs, the new jobs generally pay less well than the ones they lost .

(d) people in the region who continue to be employeda are pessimistic about their prospects for increasing their incomes

(e) there exist no statistics about sales of goods in the region as a whole

19. every student who walks to school goes home for lunch. it follows that some students who have part-time jobs do not walk to school. the conclusion of the argument follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?

(a) some students who do not have part-time jobs go home for lunch

(b) every student who goes home for lunch has a part-time job.

(d) some students who do not go home for lunch have part-time jobs.

(e) every student who goes home for lunch walks to school.

20. when the pinecrest animal shelter, a charitable organization, was in danger of closing because it could not pay for important repairs, its directors appealed to the townspeople to donate money that would be earmarked to pay for those repairs. since more funds were ultimately donated than were used for the repairs the directors plan to donate the surplus funds to other animal shelters. but before doing so, the directors should obtain permission from those who made the donations

which one of the following priciples, if valid, most helps to justify the position advocated aboved above and yet places the least restriction on the allocation of funds by directors of charitable organizations?

(a) the directors of charitable organizations cannot allocate publicly solicited funds to any purposes for which the directors had not specifically carmarked the funds in advance

(b) people who solicit charitable donations from the public for a specific cause should spend the funds only on that cause or, if that becomes impossible, should dispose of the funds according to the express wishes of the donors.

(c) directors of charitable organizations who solicit money from the public must return all the money is received than can practicably be used for the purposes specified in the appeal.

(d) donors of money to charitable organizations cannot delegate to the directors of those organizations the responsibility of allocating the funds received to various purposes consonant with the purposes of the organization as the directors of the organization see fit.

(e) people who contribute money to charitalbe organizations should be considered to be placing their trust in the directors of those organizations to use the money wisely according to whatever circumstance might arise.

21. the amount of electricity consumed in millville on any day in august is directly proportional to peak humidity on that day since the average peak humidity this august was three points higher than the average peak humidity last ausgust, it follows that more energy was consumed in millville this august than last august

which one of the following arguments has a pattern of reasoning most similar to the one in the argument above?

(a) the amount of art supplies used in any of the aesthetic institute s 25 classes is directly proportional to the number of students in that class. since in these classes the institute enrolled 20 percent more students overall last year than in the previous year mort art supplies were used in the institute s classes last year than in the provious year.

(b) the number of courses in painting offered by the aesthetic institute in any term is directly proportional to the number of students enrolled in the institute in that term. but the institute offers the same number of courses in sculpture each term. hence, the institute usually offers more courses in painting than in seulpture each term. hence, the institute usually offers more courses in painting than in sculpture.

(c) the number of new students enrolled at the aesthetic institute in any given year is directly proportional to the amount of advertising the institute has done in the previous year. hence, if the institute seeks to increase its student body it must increase the amount it spends on advertising

(d) the fees paid by a student at the aesthetic institute are didirectly proportional to the number of classes in which that student enrolls. since the number of students at the aesthetic institute is increasing, it follows that the institute is collecting a greater amount in fees paid by students than it used to

(e) the number of instructors employed by the aesthetic institute in any term is directly proportional to the number of classes offered in that term and also directly proportional to the number of students enrolled at the institute thus, the number of classes offered by the institute in any term is directly proportional to the number of students enrolled in that term.

22. letter to the editor: after baerton s factory closed, there was a sharp increase in the number of claims field for job-related injury compensation by the factory s former employees, hence there is reason to believe that most of those who filed for compensation after the factory closed were just out to gain benefits they did not deserve, and filed only to help them weather their job loss.

each of the following, if true, weakens the argument above except:

(a) workers cannot file for compensation for many job-related injuries, such as hearings loss from factory noise, until they have left the job.

(b) in the years before the factory closed, the factory s managers dismissed several employees who had filed injury claims.

(d) workers who incur partial disabilities due to injuries on the job often donot file for compensation because they would have to stop working to receive compensation but cannot afford to live on that compensation alone.

(e) workers who are aware that they will soon be laid off from a job often become depressed, making them more prone to job-related injuries.

23. historians of north american architecture who have studied early nineteenth-century houses with wooden floors have observed that the boards used on the floors of bigger houses were generally much narrower than those used on the floors of smaller houses. these historians have argued that, since the people for whom the bigger houses were built were generally richer than the people for whom the smaller houses were probably once a status symbol, designed to proclaim the owner s wealth.

which one of the following, if true, most helps to strengthen the historians argument?

(a) more original floorboards have survived from big early nineteenth-century houses than from small early nineteenth-century houses than from small early nineteenth-century houses.

(b) in the early nineteenth century, a piece of narrow floorboard was not significantly less expensive than a piece of wide floorboard of the same length.

(d) some early nineteenth-century houses had wied floorboards near the walls of each room and narrower floorboards in the center, where the floors were usually carpeted.

(e) many of the biggest early nineteenth-century houses but very few small houses from that period had some floors that were made of materials that were considerably more expensive than wood, such as marble.

24. ethicist: a society is just when, and only when, first each person has an equal right to basic liberties, and second, inequalities in the distribution of income and wealth are not tolerated unles these inequalities are to everyone s advantage and are attached to jobs open to everyone.

which one of the following judgments most closely conforms to the principle described above?

(a) society s guarantees everyone equal right to basic liberties, while allowing inequalities in the distribution of income and wealth that are to the advantage of everyone. further, the jobs to which these inequalities are attached are open to most people, thus, society s is just.

(b) society s gives everyone an equal right to basic liberties, but at the expense of creating inequalities in the distribution of income and wealth. thus, society s is not just.

(c) society s allows inequalities in the distribution of income and wealth, although everyone benefits and these inequalities are attached to jobs that are open to everyone. thus, society s is just.

(d) society s distributes income and wealth to everyone equally, but at the expense of creating inequalities in the right to basic liberties. thus, society s is not just.

(e) society s gives everyone an equal right to basic liberties, and although there is an inequality in the distribution of income and wealth, the jobs, to which these inequalities are attached are open to all. thus, society s is just.

25. economist: in order to decied what to do about protecting the ozone layer, we must determine the monetary amount of the economic resources that we would willingly expend to protect it. such a determination amounts to a calculation of the monetary value of the ozone layer.

environmentalists argue that the ozone layer does not have a calculable monetary value. however, we would not willingly expend an amount equal to all of the world s economic resources to protect tha ozone layer so the ozone layer is demonstrably worth less than that amount. thus, the ozone layer has a calculable monetary value.

the reasoning in the economist s argument is flawed in that the argument

(a) uses evidence that the monetary value of a particular natural resource is less than a certain amount in order to establish that the monetary value of any natural resource is less than that amount

(b) presupposes that the ozone layer should not be protected and then argues to that claim as a conclusion

(d) gives no reason for thinking that merely establishing an upper limit on a certain monetary value would allow the calculation of that monetary value

(e) does not directly address the argument of the environmentalists.

26. columnist on the arts: my elected government representatives were within their rights to vote to support the arts with tax dollars. while funded by the government. however, some artists have produced works of art that are morally or aesthetically offensive to many taxpayers. nonetheless. my conclusion is that no taxpayers have been treated unjustly whose tax dollars are used to fund some particular work of art that they may find abominable.

which one of the following principles, if valid, most supports the columnist s argument?

(a) taxpayers should be allowed to decide whether a portion of their tax dollars is to be used to fund the arts.

(b) the funding of a particular activity is warranted if it is funded by elected representatives who legitimately fund that activity in general.

(c) elected representatives are within their rights to fund any activity that is supported by a majority of their constituents.

(d) those who resent taxation to subsidize offensive art should ovte against their incumbent government representatives.

(e) since taxpayers are free to leave their country if they disapprove of their representatives decisions they have no right to complain about arts funding.

篇7：LSAT考试全真题一SECTION4

section iv

time-35 minutes

26 questions

directions: the questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. for some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. however, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. you should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. after you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

1.the recent increases in health insurance premiums are unnecessary and excessive. while the inflation rate is and has been stable at 5 percent for the past five years, during the same period the average cost of health insurance has increased annually by 10 to 20 percent. recent studies show that the population is healthier now than ever before, and thus indicate that the insurance comparuies' claims of higher health-care costs are unfounded and merely relect the quest for higher profits.

which one of the following statements, if true undermunes the conclusion in the passage?

(a) the incidence of lung cancer among men who smoke has decreased in recent years.

(b) improvements in health have occurred because of a dramatic increase in the use of expensive medical equipment, tests, and drugs.

(c) increased health insurance premiums will force some people to drop their medical coverage, thus adversely affecting their future health.

(d) health insurance currently covers fewer health problems than it did in the past

(e) though there are fewer health insurance companies today, their earnings are higher than they have ever been.

2.in the open ocean, a shark will catch almost any small fish it decides to attack. the best chance a small fish has, once it is spotted by a hungry shark, it that the shark will promptly find something else to attack.therefore, one of the benefits gained by small fish that swim in large groups known as schools is a reduced cnance of being attacked by a shark.

which one of the following statements is an assumption on which the author's argument depends?

(a) sharks live primarily on a diet of small fish

(b) sharks do not eat an entire school of fish at one time.

(d) sharks are the main danger to small fish in the open ocean.

(e) small fish are able to sense when they are being spotted by sharks.

questions 3-4

publicly owned resources will always be abused. take the example of cattle grazing. where the individual has free access to publiclv owned rangeland, he or she always has an incentive to graze more and more cattle regardless of the consequences, because the benefits are captured by the individual grazer while the costs of reduced range quality are borne by all taxpayers. private landowners are less likely to abuse their own land, however, because they must pay the entire cost.

3.which one of the following, if true, would most tend to weaken the author's argument for the conclusion that publicly owned resources will always be abused?

(a) many people who privately own resources abuse them in sume of the personal consequences.

(b) some publicly owned resources are so extensive that it would take widespread abuse before their juallty is affected.

(d) people do not want to lose access to public resources, yet they realize that they will if those resources are ruined through abuse.

(e) resources are always devalued when everyone has access to them because they are no longer a rare commodity in high demand.

4.which one of the following could be best supported by the same type of reasoning as that exhibited in the passage?

(a) the supply of beverages at the annual office picnic will last longer if people pay for them on a per-beverage basis rather than everyone in the office being charged a flat fee.

(b) a math teacher provides his students with after-school tutoring on several days because no single day is good for everyone.

(c) a tennis club starts charging flat annual membership fees instead of pay-as-you-play court fees in order to ensure a regular club income.

(d) a social service agency varies its charges for services because some people are able to pay more than others.

(e) a tobacco tax is instituted in order to fund improvements in public education

5.the city is vigorously enforcing the ordinance against allowing individuals to sleep in the bus depot. the mayor argues that such vigorous enforcement is fair, evenhanded, and administered in the best traditions of equal treatment for all “no one can sleep in the bus depot,” the mayor has said, “whether you're homefess or the chief executive of a major corporation.” this brings to mind a remark once made by a political commentator. the law in its majestic equality, forbids the rich as well as the poor to sleep under bridges, to beg in the streets, and to steal bread, it's time for the mayor to come to rus senses.

the passage as a whole is structured to lead which one of the following conclusions?

(a) people should not be treated equally with respect to enforcing the ordinance vigorously.

(b) everyone should be treated equally with respect to enforcing the ordinance vigorously.

(d) the law holds poor people to stricter standards than it does rich people.

(e) in a truly equal legal system, no one would sleep in bus depots.

6.although physicians are alleged to hide their colleagues' medical incompetence, today that practice could be professional suicide. because so many medical advances are well-known by all doctors, obscuring someone's incompetent procedure is almost impossible when a claimant choose to pursue a case. thus, in malpractice suits, physicians risk their own reputations if they testify falsely to protect their friends.

which one of the following is an assumption supporting the conclusion in the passage?

(a) physicians' professional success depends upon their good reputations.

(b) incompetent physicians should be exposed before they commit malpractice.

(d) physicians should do everything possible to protect themselves from malpractice claims.

(e) times have changed and physicians today must keep up on all medical advances.

questions 7-8

the economy is in a dismal state, universities are suffering from cutbacks, and many students must turn to any source of funds available if they are to make endsmeet. faced with this situation, the university has terminated the employment of some of its more productive departmental workers. why? university regulations prohibit a student's receiving financial aid and then working for an auxiliary income that exceeds a specified limit. employees whose incomes had reached that limit employees whose incomes had reached that limit were terminated. now, the university must find other employees. unfortunately, though, the university's choice of students to fill the positions will not be based upon their abilities to perform, or even upon their financial need, but upon how much money they have made.

7.it may be concluded from information in the passage that the university

(a) has fired some student-employees and is looking for other student-employees to replace them

(b) has lost some full-time employees and will replace them with part-time student-employees

(d) anticipates losing some employees and has already begun to seek replacements

(e) anticipates paying new employees lower wages than the former employees received

8.which one of the following is the best statement or the primary point of the passage?

(a) good student-employees should be able to obtain financial aid and, at the same time, earn auxiliary incomes without limits.

(b) in the face of a declining economy, universities need to be more lenient in their financial aid policies.

(d) decisions about student employment should be based entirely upon each student's financial need.

(e) due to the problems created by a dismal economy, some student-workers have lost their jobs.

question 9-10

any person who drops out of high school will be unemployed unless he or she finds a low-paying job or has relative with good business connections.

9.which one of the following conclusions cannot be validly drawn from the statement above?

(a) any person who drops out of high school will be unemployed, have a low-paying job, or have relatives with good business connections.

(b) any high school dropout who has neither a low-paying job nor relatives with good business connections will be unemployed.

(c) any employed person who has neither a low-paying job nor relatives with good business connections is not a high school dropout.

(d) any high school dropout who has a job that is not low-paying must have relatives with good business connections.

(e) any person who has relatives with good business connections and who is not a high school dropout must be employed at a job that is not low-paying.

10. assume that tom is employed and does not have a low-paying job. which one of the following statements, when added to this assumption, contradicts the original statement made in the statement above?

(a) tom is a high school dropout

(b) tom does not have relatives with good business connections.

(d) tom is completed high school and has relatives with good business connections.

(e) tom has relatives with good business connections.

11. a man who survived a recent train wreck in which several lives were lost were lost was asked whether he was now afraid of taking the train he reasoned, “i've read that the likelihood of a train wreck is about one in every 100,000 times a train leaves a station. so i'll start fearing for my safety after the trains have logged another 95,000 or so trips.”

the source of the man's erroneous reasoning is his

(a) misunderstanding of “likelihood” in relation to train wrecks

(b) assumption that all train wrecks are alike

(d) failure to recognize that there may be fewer future train trips as a result of the recent wreck

(e) assumption that personal fear and the occurrence of train wrecks are unrelated

questions 12-13

chris:murderers should be sentenced to life in prison, not subjected to the death penalty. a life sentence is enough to deter any convicted murderer from killing again. moreover, even the worst offenders may sbsequently undergo a miraculous rehabilitation-a possibility that is eliminated by the death penalty. the bird man of alcatraz, a notorious convicted murderer, is a case in point. he raised canaries while in prison and ultimately became an acknowledged authority on the subject.

dana: but the bird man of alcatraz killed another inmate while in prison. what would you do to deter him from committing yet another murder-take away his birds?

12. each of the following can be inferred from chris's argument except

(a) all convicted murderers will be deterred from killing again if given life sentences.

(b) any convicted murderer could undergo a miracious rehabilitation.

(d) the threat of life imporisionment is adequate to deter potential murderers.

(e) becoming an acknowiedged authority on canaries is evidence of one person's rehabilitation.

13. dana most seriously weakens chris's argument by doing which one of the following?

(a) making a personal attack on the bird man of alcatraz

(b) giving a counterexample to the principle offered by chris that life imprisonment is from killing again.

(d) suggesting that chris's argument is based on an atypical case

(e) demonstrating that it is impossible to prevent a convicted murderer from committing another murder while in prison.

14. common patterns of fallacious reasoning are endemic to everyday life and once adopted cannot be corrected. poor reasoning skills waste public and private money, make people less efficient and productive, and diminish our national capacity to compete abroad. but within the past few years, a “thinking skillis” movement has arisen. the teaching of reasoning skills is part of this larger movement to make students think more critically. increasingly, as part of the teaching of decision-making, college students are successfully learning to avoid common patterns of fallacious reasoning that they habitually commit, and, in the process,to acquire sound reasoning skills.

which one of the following indentifies the most serious iogical flaw that this passage contains?

(a) the passage fails to establish a connection between the teaching of decision-making and the teaching of reasoning skills.

(b) the passage contradicts itself by both affirming and denying that patterns of fallacious reasoning can be corrected.

(c) the passage uses circular reasoning by first stating that patterns of fallacious reasoning diminish our capacious reasoning diminish our capacity for competition and then asserting that lack of competition leads to a lessenung of skills.

(d) the passage makes an unwarranted inference from improving thinking skills to teaching reasoning skills.

(e) the passage fails to link the teaching of decision-making to the larger movement to make students think more critically.

questions 15-16

our society overestimates the contributions of science to the quest for knowledge. independent of whether great strides have been made in the ability to predict natural events, knowledge at any deeper level, knowledge of things we cannot experience directly, is as illusory as ever. such knowledge is illusory because incompatible theories may always be postulated to explain observations. how can we “know” which one is correct? further observations may narrow the possibilities, but there are alwaysalternatives, at least in principle. who is to say that today's theories will fare any better than those which, though once accepted, were replaced by wholly different conceptions, of nature? it is the height of gullibility or presumption to invest special credence in the current scientific fashion.

15. which one of the following best expresses the author's conclusion in the passage?

(a) science is considerably less valuable than other approaches to producing knowledge.

(b) changes in and differences among scientific theories do not result in genuine progress.

(d) the ability of science to produce knowledge is overrated.

(e) currently accepted scientific theories, however well accepted, are probably self-contradictory

16. which one of the following claims is central to the author's argument?

(a) alternative explanations are possible for any set of observations about nature.

(b) science has made substantial progress in the ability to predict natural events.

(d) it is important that scientists distinguish between prediction and explanation.

(e) the judgment of scientists as to which theories to accept is suspect, as they tend to follow the latest scientific fashion.

17. the recent dramatic increase in commuter airline crashes is caused in large part by pilot inexperience. as a major growth industry, the commuter airlines have recently had a great increase in the demand for experienced pilots. it is impossible to define and assess pilot experience, however. for example, someone with 1000 hours of flight experience as an instructor in arizona, where the weather is good,cannot be compared to someone with 1000 hours' experience as a night cargo pilot in the stormy northeastern united states.

the author's conclusion that the dramatic increase in commuter airline crashes is caused by pilot inexperience is most weakened by the fact that the author has

(a) argued that it is impossible to measure “pilot experience”

(b) used an example that does not relate logically to the point being illustrated

(d) made an unfair comparison between experience as a flight instructor and experience as a night cargo pilot

(e) not specified how much of the recent increase in commuter airline crashes is due to pilot inexperience

18. brand x laundry detergent sells for $2.00 a box brand y sells for $4.00 a box. therefore, you will save money if you use brand x laundry detergent instead of brand x.

which one of the following if true would make the conclusion in the passage a logical conclusion?

(a) it takes only one cup of brand x to do the work of one and one-half cups of brand y.

(b) a box of brand x contains the same amount of inaundry detergent as a box of brand y.

(d) more than twice as many people use brand x as use brand y.

(e) brand x and brand y normally sell for $3.00 a box, but brand x is one safe and brand y has been marked up.

19. in a recent advertisement, a major cereal company contended that the better educated people are the more likely it is that as children they regularly ate oatmeal. as evidence, the company cited a national random survey of college graduates in which four-fifths of all those surveyed reported having eaten oatmeal at least once a week when they were young.

which one of the following is an additional piece of information that would support the cereal company's conclusion?

(a) four-fifths of all current college graduates eat oatmeal regularly.

(b) fewer than four-fifths of those without a college degree ate oatmeal regularly when they were children.

(c) among people who have additional education beyond college, four-fifths ate oatmeal regularly when they were children.

(d) more than four-fifths of the population at large-college graduates and nongraduates combined-ate oatmeal regularly when they were children.

(e) those college graduates who did not eat oatmeal regularly when they were children did eat oatmeal on an occasional basis.

20. of the ten professional tennis players who are generally considered the greatest of all time, six had no brothers or sisters. however, only a small portion of the general population is made up of such “only children.” clearly, if you are a professional tennis player, you have a better chance of being considered among the greatest if you are an only child.

which one of the following, if true, would undermine the argument in the passage?

(a) some great tennis players never play professionally.

(b) ascribing “greatness” to tennis players is necessarily subjective.

(d) an only child tends to be better at individual sports than at team sports.

(e) parents who have only one child have more time to invest in the child's tennis career than do other parents.

21. the west does not escape the effects of its relationship with the non-western world. even as an individual fails to develop fully without constant interaction with an equal, a tradition of thought loses vitality and lacks the capacity for rigorous self-criticism without the probing presence of an authentic “other.” in the absence of constant and critical dialogue with other traditions. western thought remains parochial, commonplace, and narrow.

which one of the following techniques of argument does the author use in the passage?

(a) identifying a point of similarity between two different states of affairs

(b) reconciling two opposed sets of circumstances with each other

(d) deriving a conclusion from a set of conflicting assumptions

(e) taking advantage of inconsistencies in the definition of a critical term

22. george: the economics taught in college is very confusing-and that's because it's all wrong.

harold: if it's all wrong, why is college economics still force-fed to students?

george: it's very difficult to learn something that's all wrong, and if, by chance, someone does waste all that time and learn it, he or she will be inclined to defend it ferociously and pass it on to others

which one of the following, if true, would most directly challenge george's reasoning?

(a) many college graduates who have taken economics go on to successful careers in a variety of other fields.

(b) college students who major in economics tend to earn higher grades in economics than in their other subjects.

(d) many economics professors agree with journal articles that strongly criticize college economics.

(e) interviews five years after graduation show that economics majors are just as likely to say that their college experience was enjoyable as are those who did not major in economics.

23. the existentialists are right about one thing we are alone, radically alone. the proof is obvious. suppose you were born with a physiology that permitted you to perceive only negative images, that is, you saw black where everyone else saw white and white where everyone else saw black. nevertheless, you would learn to call what you saw as black by the name “white” because this is what you would be taught, and there would be no way that you could discover your error.

which one of the following can be validly inferred from the statements in the argument above?

(a) some people are born with reversed perceptions of black and white, and they cannot discover this

(b) people with reversed perceptions of black and white would not choose their words any differently from anyone else

(d) the existentialists claim that some people are born with reversed perceptions of black and white.

(e) the existentialists claim that people mean different things when they use the words “black” and “white.”

24. odysseus answered well when the priests showed him a picture of those who had honored the gods and then escaped shipwreck, and asked him whether he did not now acknowledge the power of the gods-“yes,” he asked, but where are those pictured who were drowned after their prayers? and such is the way of all superstitions; wherein humans,having a delight in such vanities, mark the events where they are fulfilled, but where they fail, though this happens much oftener negiect and pass them by.

which one of the following contains the error of reasoning described by the author in the passage?

(a) i have discovered that friday the 13th really is a day of misfortune. just this past friday the 13th, i locked myself out of the house.

(b) although napoleon and alexander the great were short, abraham lincoln and charles de gaulle were tall. so short people seek leadership in order to overcome feelings of inferiority.

(c) every semester for the past 15 years, an average of 10 percent of ms. elliot's history students have dropped her course before the exam. so, it seems likely that we can expect 10 percent to drop out this year.

(d) no reliable observer has ever actually seen a yeti. the strongest evidence seems to be some suspicious tracks. so i thing this search for a yeti is probably a wild-goose chase.

(e) i cannot trust my lucky shirt any longer wore it to the game today and our team lost.

25. a well-known former quarterback is probably very adept at analyzing the relative strengths of football teams. however, efforts by television advertisers to suggest that the quarterback is an expert on pantyhose or popcorn poppers should arouse skepticism among viewers. the same response should result when a popular television actor, who is frequently cast in the role of a doctor, appears in a commercial to endorse a brand of decaffeinated coffee. his views on television acting would deserve attention since he has had considerable experience in that field, but viewers have every right to doubt his authority in coffee advertisements.

which one of the following is a presupposition essential to the reasoning in the passage above?

(a) the strength of authoritative evidence as legitimate proof is closely related to the authority's degree of expertness in the area in question.

(b) practical experience counts for more than academic trairng in assessing the competence of authorities.

(d) the viewing audience is not sufficlently capable of evaluating authoritative appeals in advertisements.

(e) television viewers will somehow mentally transfer the credibility of celebrities in one area of expertise to another represented by the product being advertised.

26. judging by the box office receipts, film audiences have had a surfeit of spectacular special effects and are more interested in good drama comedy, or engaging action than in seeing yet another spaceship explode.film producers are getting the message, so in the coming year expect ___

which one of the following best concludes the author s statement?

(a) more science fiction in an effort to increase box office receipts

(b) fewer spaceships exploding, but no change in the amount of the other spectacular special effects used in science fiction

(c) the pendulum to swing away from science fiction, providing science fiction films continue to use spectacular special effects

(d) more spectacular effects along with increasing levels of difficult stunt work

(e) more films combining good drama with spectacular special effects

篇8：LSAT考试全真题二SECTION4

section iv

time-35 minutes

27 questions

directions: each passage in this section is followed by a group of questions to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implies in the passage for some of the questions more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. however you are to choose the best answer that is the response that most accurately and completely answers the question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet

three kinds of study have been performed on byron. there is the biographical study-the very valuable examination of byron's psychology and the events in his life. escarpit's 1958 work is an example

(5) of this kind of study and biographers to this day continue to speculate about byron's life. equally valuable is the study of byron as a figure important in the history of ideas; russell and prza have written studies of this kind. finally, there are

(10)studies that primarily consider byron's poetry. such inerary studies are valuable however only when they avoid concentrating solely on analyzing the verbal shadings of byron's poetry to the exclusion of any discussion of biographical considerations. a

(15)study with such a concentration would be of questionable value because byron's poetry, for the most part, is simply not a poetry of subtle verbal most part, is simply not a poetry of subtle verbal meanings. rather, on the whole, byron's poerns record the emotional pressure of certain moments

(20)in his life. i believe we cannot often read a poem of bvron's we often can one of shakespeare's without wondering what events or circumstances in his life prompted him to write it.

no doubt the fact that most of byron's poems

(25)cannot be convincingly read as subtle verbal creations indicates that byron is not a “great” poet. it must be admitted too that byron's literary craftsmanship is irregular and often his temperament disrupts even his lax literrary method

(30)(although the result an absence of method has a significant purpose: it functions as a rebuke to a cosmos that byron feels he cannot understand). if byron is not a “great” poet his poetry is nonetheless of extrtaordinary interest to us because

(35)of the pleasure it gives us: our main pleasure in reading byron's poetry is the contact with a singular personality. reading his work gives us illumination-self-understanding-after we have seen our weaknesses and aspirations mirrored in

(40)the personality we usually find in the poems. anyone who thinks that this kind of illumination is not a genuine reason for reading a poet should think carefully about why we read donne's sonnets.

it is byron and byron's idea of himself that hold

(45)his work together (and that enthralled early nineteenth-century europe different characters speak in his poems, but finally it is usually he himself who is speaking a far cry from the impersonal poet keats. byron's poetry alludes to)

(50)greek and roman myth in the context of contemporary affairs, but his work remains generally of a piece because of his close presence in the poetry. in sum, the poetry is a shrewd personal performance, and to shut out byron the man is to

(55)fabricate a work of pseudocriticism.

1.which one of the following titles best expresses the main idea of the passage?

(a) an absence of method. why byron is not a “great” poet

(b) byron: the recurring presence in byron's poetry

(d) byron's poetry: its influence on the imagination of early-nineteenth-century europe

(e) verbal shadings: the fatal flaw of twentieth-century literary criticism

2. the author's mention of russell and praz serves primarily to

(a) differentiate them from one another

(b) contrast their conclusions about byron with those of escarptt

(d) provide examples of writers who have written one kind of study of byron

(e) give credit to the writers who have composed the best studies of byrson

3.which one of the following would the author most likely consider to be a valuable study of byron?

(a) a study that compared byron's poetic style with keats' poetic style

(b) a study that argued that byron's thought ought not to be analyzed in terms of its importance in the history of ideas

(d) a study in which a literary critic argues that the language of byron's poetry was more subtle than that of keat's poetry

(e) a study in which a literary critic drew on experiences from his or her own life

4.which one of the following statements best describes the organization of first paragraph of the passage?

(a) a generalization is made and then gradually refuted

(b) a number of theories are discussed and then the author chooses the most convincing one

(d) a historical trend is delineated and then a prediction about the future of the trend is offered

(e) a classification is made and then a rival classification is substituted in its place

5.the author mentions that “byron's literary craftsmanship is irregular” (lines 27-28) most probably in order to

(a) contrast byron's poetic skill with that of shakespeare

(b) dismiss craftsmanship as a standard by which to judge poets

(d) pornt out a negative consequence of byron's belief that the cosmos is mcomprehensible

(e) mdicate the most-often-cited explanation of why byron's poetry lacks subtle verbal nuances

6.according to the autohor shakespeare's poems differ from byron's in that shakespeare's poems

(a) have elicited a wider variety of responses from both literary critics and biographers

(b) are on the whole less susceptible to being read as subtle verbal creations

(d) provide the attentive reader with a greater degree of illumination concerning his or her own weaknesses and aspirations

(e) can often be read without the reader's being curious about what biographical factors motivated the poet to write them

7.the author indicates which one of the following about biographers speculation concerning byron's life?

(a) such speculation began in earnest with escarpit's study

(b) such speculation continues today

(d) such speculation has not given us a satisfactory sense of byron's life

(e) such speculation has been carried out despite the objections of literary critics

8.the passage supplies specific information that provides a definitive answer to which one of the following questions?

(a) what does the author consider to be the primary enjoyment derived from reading byron?

(b) who among literary critics has primarily studied byron's poems?

(d) has byron ever been considered to be a “great” poet?

(e) did byron exert an influence on europeans in the latter part of the nineteenth century?

the united states supreme court has not always resolved legal issues of concern to native americans in a manner that has pleased the indian nations. many of the court's decisions have been

(5) products of political compromise that looked more to the temper of the times than to enduring principles of law. but accommodation is part of the judicial system in the united states, and judicial decisions must be assessed with this fact in mind.

(10)despite the “accommodating” nature of the judicial system, it is worth noting that the power of the supreme court has been exercised in a manner that has usually been beneficial to native americans, at least on minor issues and has not

(15)been wholly detrimental on the larger, more important issues. certainly there have been decisions that cast doubt on the validity of this assertion. some critics point to the patronizing tone of many court opinions and the apparent rejection

(20)of native american values as important points to consider when reviewing a case. however the validity of the assertion can be illustrated by reference to two important contributions that have resulted from the exercise of judicial power.

(25) first the court has created rules of judicial construction that in general favor the rights of native american litigants. the court's attitude has been conditioned by recognition of the distinct disadvantages native americans faced when

(30)dealing with settlers in the past. treaties were inevitably written in english for the benefit of their authors, whereas tribal leaders were accustomed to making treaties without any written account, on the strength of mutual promises sealed by religious

(35)commitment and individual integrity. the written treaties were often broken and native americans were confronted with fraud and native americans were confronted with fraud and political and military aggression. the court recognizes that past unfairness to native americans cannot be

(40)sanctioned by the force of law. therefore, ambiguities in treaties are to be interpreted in favor of the native american claimants treaties are to be interpreted as the native americans would have understood them and under the reserved rights

(45)doctrine treaties reserve to native americans all rights that have not been specifically granted away in other treaties.

a second achievement of the judicial system is the protection that has been provided against

(50)encroachment by the states into tribal affairs. federal judges are not inclined to view favorably efforts to extend states powers and jurisdictions because of the direct threat that such expansion poses to the exercise of federal powers. in the

(55)absence of a federal statute directly and clearly allocating a function to the states federal judges are inclined to reserve to reserve for the federal government-and powers and rights they can be said to have

(60)possessed historically

9.according to the passage, one reason why the united states supreme court “has not always resolved legal issues of concern to native americans in a manner that has pleased the indian nations” (lines 1-4) is that

(a) native americans have been prevented from presenting their concerns persuasively

(b) the court has failed to recognize that the indian nations' concerns are different from those of other groups or from those of the federal government

(d) native americans faced distinct disadvantages in dealing with settlers in the past

(e) the court has made political compromises in deciding some cases

10. it can be inferred that the objections raised by the critics mentioned in line 18 would be most clearly answered by a united states supreme court decision that

(a) demonstrated respect for native americans and the principles and qualities they consider important

(b) protected the rights of the states in conflicts with the federal government

(d) reflected consideration of the hardships suffered by native americans because of unfair treaties

(e) prevented repetition of inequities experienced by native americans in the past

11. it can be inferred that the author calls the judicial system of the united states “accommodating” (line 10) primarily in order to

(a) suggest that the decisions of the united states supreme court have been less favorable to native americans than most people believe

(b) suggest that the united states supreme court should be more supportive of the goals of native americans

(d) indicate that the united states supreme court has made creditable efforts to recognize the values of native americans

(e) indicate that the united states supreme court attempts to be fair to all parties to a case

12. the author's attitude toward the united states supreme court's resolution of legal issues of concern to native americans can best be described as one of

(a) wholehearted endorsement

(b) restrained appreciation

(d) cautious opposition

(e) suppressed exasperation

13. it can be inferred that the author believes that the extension of the states' powers and jurisdictions with respect to native american affairs would be

(a) possible only with the consent of the indian nations

(b) favorably viewed by the united states supreme court

(d) detrimental to the interests of native americans

(e) discouraged by most federal judges in spite of legal precedents supporting the extension

14. the author's primary purpose is to

(a) contrast opposing views

(b) reevaluate traditional beliefs

(d) assess the claims made by disputants

(e) provide evidence to support a contention

15. it can be inferred that the author believes the united states supreme court's treatment of native americans to have been

(a) irremproachable on legal grounds

(b) reasonably supportive in most situations

(d) misguided but generally harmless

(e) harmful only in a few minor cases

when catastrophe strikes, analysts typically blame some combination of powerful mechanisms. an earthquake is traced to an immense instability along a fault line; a stock market crash is blamed on

(5) the destabilizing effect of computer trading. these explanations may well be correct. but systems as large and complicated as the earth's crust or the stock market can break down not only under the force of a mighty blow but also at the drop of a pin.

(10)in a large interactive system, a minor event can start a chain reaction that leads to a catastrophe.

traditionally, investigators have analyzed large interactive systems in the same way they analyze small orderly systems, mainly because the methods

(15)developed for small systems have proved so successful. they believed they could predict the behavior of a large interactive system by studying its elements separately and by analyzing its component mechanisms individually. for lack of a better

(20)theory, they assumed that in large interactive systems the response to a disturbance is proportional to that disturbance.

during the past few decades, however, it has become increasingly apparent that many large

(25)complicated systems do not yield to traditional analysis. consequently, heorists have proposed a “theory of self-organized criticality” many large interactive systems evolve naturally to a critical state in which a minor event starts a chain reaction

(30)that can affect any number of elements in the system. although such systems produce more minor events than catastrophes, the mechanism that leads to minor events is the same one that leads to major events.

(35)a deceptively simple system serves as a paradigm for self-organized criticality: a pile of sand. as sand is poured one grain at a time onto a fiat disk the grains at first stay close to the position where they land. soon they rest on top of one

(40)another creating a pile that has a gentle slope. now and then, when the lope becomes too steep the grains slide down causing a small avalanche. the system reaches its critical state when the amount of sand added is balanced; on average, by the amount

(45)falling off the edge of the disk.

now when a grain of sand is added, it can start an avalanche of any size, including a “catastrophic” event. most of the time the grain will fall so that no avalanche occurs. by studying a specific area of the

(50)pile, one can even predict whether avalanches will occur there in the near future. to such a local observer, however, large avalanches would remain unpredictable because they are a consequence of the total history of the entire pile. no matter what

(55)the local dynamics are catastrophic avalanches would persist at a relative frequency that cannot be altered: criticality is a global property of the sandpile.

16.the passage provides support for all of the following generalizations about large interactive systems except:

(a) they can evolve to a critical state.

(b) they do not always yield to traditional analysis

(d) they are subject to the effects of chain reactions

(e) they are subject to more minor events than major events.

17. according to the passage, the criticality of a sandpile is determined by the

(a) size of the grains of sand added to the sandpile

(b) number of grains of sand the sandpile contains

(d) shape of the surface on which the sandpile rests

(e) balance between the amount of sand added to and the amount lost from the sandplie

18. it can be inferred from the passage that the theory employed by the investigators mentioned in the second paragraph would lead one to predict that which one of the following would result from the addition of a grain of sand to a sandpile?

(a) the grain of sand would never cause anything more than a minor disturbance

(b) the grain of sand would usually cause a minor disturbance, but would occasionally cause a small avalanche

(c) the grain of sand would usually cause either minor disturbance or a small avalanche, but would occasionally cause a catastrophic event

(d) the grain of sand would usually cause a catastrophic event, but would occasionally cause only a small avalanche or an event more minor disturbance

(e) the grain of sand would invariably cause a catastrophic event

19. which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

(a) a traditional procedure is described and its application to common situations is endorsed: its shortcomings in certain rare but critical circumstances are then revealed

(b) a common misconception is elaborated and its consequences are described a detailed example of one of these consequences is then given.

(c) a general principle is stated and supported by several examples; an exception to the rule is then considered and its importance evaluated

(d) a number of seemingly unrelated events are categorized: the underlying processes that connect them are then detailed

(e) a traditional method of analysis is discussed and the reasons for its adoption are explained: an alternative is then described and clarified by means of an example.

20. which one of the following is most analogous to the method of analysis employed by the investigators mentioned in the second paragraph?

(a) a pollster gathers a sample of voter preferences and on the basis of this information makes a prediction about the outcome of an election

(b) a historian examines the surviving documents detailing the history of a movement and from these documents reconstructs a chronology of the events that initiated the movement

(c) a meteorologist measures the rainfall over a certain period of the year and from this data calculates the total annual rainfall for the region.

(d) a biologist observes the behavior of one species of insect and from these observations generalizes about the behavior of insects as a class.

(e) an engineer analyzes the stability of each structural element of a bridge and from these analyses draws a conclusion about the structural soundness of the bridge.

21. in the passage, the author is primarily concerned with

(a) arguing against the abandonment of a traditional approach

(b) describing the evolution of a radical theory

(d) illustrating the superiority of a new theoretical approach

(e) advocating the reconsideration of an unfashionable explanation

historians have long accepted the notion that women of english descent who lived in the english colonies of north america during the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries were better off than either

(5) the contemporary women in england or the colonists' own nineteenth-century daughters and granddaughters. the “golden age” theory originated in the 1920 with the work of elizabeth dexter who argued that there were relatively few

(10)women among the colonists, and that all hands-male and female-were needed to sustain the growing settlements. rigid sex-role distionctions could no exist under such circumstances; female colonists could accordingly engage in whatever

(15)occupations they wished encountering few legal or social constraints if they sought employment outside the home. the surplus of mate colonists also gave women crucial bargaining power in the marriage marke since women's contributions were vital to

(20)the survival of colonial households.

dexter's portrait of female colonists living under conditions of rough equality with their male counterparts was eventualiy incorporated into studies of nineteenth-century middle-class women

(25)the contrast between the self-sufficient colonial woman and the oppressed nineteenth--century woman confined to her home by stultifying ideologies of domesticity and by the fact that industrialization eliminated employment

(30)opportunities for middle -class women gained an extraordinarily tenacious hold on historians. even scholars who have questioned the “golden age” view of colonial women's status have continued to accept the paradigm of a nineteenth-century

(35)decline from a more desirable past. for example. joan hofi-wilson asserted that there was no “golden age” and yet emphasized that the nineteenth century brought “increased loss of function and authentic status for” middle-class

(40) women

recent publications about colonial women have exposed the concept of a decline in status as simplistic and unsophisticated, a theory that based its assessment of colonial women's status solely on

(45)one factor (their economic function in society) and assumed all too readily that a relatively simple social system automatically brought higher standing to colonial women. the new scholarship presents a far more complicated picture, one in which

(50)definitions of gender roles, the colonial economy, demographic patterns, religion, the law, and household organization all contributed to defining the circumstances of colonial women's lives. indeed, the primary concern of modern scholarship is not to

(55)generalize about women's status but to identify the specific changes and continuities in women's lives during the colonial period. for example, whereas change for colonial women before 1800 the new

(60)scholarship suggests that a three-part chronological division more accurately reflects colonial women's experiences. first was the initial period of english colonization (from the 1620s to about 1660); then a period during which patterns of family and

(65)community were challenged and reshaped (roughly from 1660 to 1750); and finally the era of revolution (approximately 1750 to 1815), which brought other changes to women's lives

22. which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?

(a) an earlier theory about the status of middle-class women in the nineteenth century has been supported by recent scholarship

(b) recent studies of middle-class nineteenth-century women have altered an earlier theory about the status of colonial women

(c) recent scholarship has exposed an earlier theory about the status of colonial women as too narrowly based and oversimplified

(d) an earlier theory about colonial women has greatly influenced recent studies on middle-class women in the nineteenth century

(e) an earlier study of middle-class women was based on insufficient research on the status of women in the nineteenth century

23. the author discusses hoff-wilson primarily in order to

(a) describe how dexter's theory was refuted by historians of nineteenth-century north america

(b) describe how the theory of middle-class women's nineteenth-century decline in siatus was developed

(d) demonstrate the persistent influence of the “golden age” theory

(e) provide an example of current research one the colonial period

24. it can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to describe the views of the scholars mentioned in line 32 as

(a) unassailable

(b) innovative

(d) overly sophisticated

(e) without merit

25. it can be inferred from the passage that in proposing the “three-part chronological division” (lines 60-61), scholars recognized which one of the following?

(a) the circumstances of colonial women's lives were defined by a broad variety of social and economic factors

(b) women's lives in the english colonies of north america were similar to women's lives in seventeenth-and eighteenth-century england

(c) colonial women's status was adversely affected when patterns of family and community were established in the late seventeenth century

(d) colonial women's status should be assessed primarily on the basis of their economic function in society

(e) colonial women's status was low when the colonies were settled but changed significantly during the era of revolution

26. according to the author the publications about colonial women mentioned in the third paragraph had which one of the following effects?

(a) they undermined dexter's argument on the status of women colonists during the colonial period.

(b) they revealed the tenacity of the “golden age” theory in american history

(d) they established that women's status did not change significantly from the colonial period to the nineteenth century

(e) they provided support for earlier theories about women colonists in the english colonies of north america

27. practitioners of the new scholarship discussed in the last paragraph would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about dexter's argument?

(a) it makes the assumption that women's status is determined primarily by their political power in society

(b) it makes the assumption that a less complex social system necessarily confers higher status on women

(d) it places too much emphasis on the way definitions of gender roles affected women colonists in the colonial period

(e) it accurately describes the way women's status declined in the nineteenth century.

篇9：LSAT考试考试全真试题三

关于LSAT考试考试全真试题三

LSAT考试考试全真试题三 SECTION 1

SECTION 1

Time-35 minutes

24 Questions

Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to araw a rough diagram. Choose the resoonse that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

Questions 1-6

Seven students-fourth-year students Kim and Lee; third-year students Pat and Robin: and second-year students Sandy, Tety and Val-and only those seven, are being assigned a rooms of equal size in a dormitory. Each room assigned must have either one or two or three students assigned to it and will accordingly be called either a single or a double or a triple. The seven students are assigned to moms in accordence with the following conditions:

Lio fourth-year student can be assigned to a triple.

No second-year student can be assigned to a single.

Lee and Pobin must not share the same room

Kim and Pat must share the same room.

1. Which one of the following is a combination of rooms to which the seven students could be assigned?

(A) two triples and one single

(B) one triple and four singles

(D) two doubles and three singles

(E) one double and five singles

2. It the room assigned to Robin is a single, which one of the following could be true?

(A) There is exactly one double that has a second-year student assigned to it.

(B) Lee is assigned to a stngle.

(D) Lixactly three of the rooms assigned to the students are singles

(E) Exactly two of the rooms assigned to the students are doubles.

3. Which one of the following must be true?

(A) Lee is assigned to a single

(B) Pat sharts a double with another student

(D) Two of the second-year students share a double with each other

(E) Neither of the third-year students is assigned to a single

4. If Robin is assigred to a triple, which one of the following must be true?

(A) Lee is assigned to a single

(B) Two second-year students share a double with each other

(D) Two of the rooms assigned to the students are singles.

(E) Three of the rooms assigned to the students are singles

5. If Terry and Val assigned to different doubles from each other, other, then it must be true of the students rooms that exactly

(A) one is a single

(B) two are singles

(D) one is a triple

(E) two are triples

6. Which one of the following could be true?

(A) The two fourth-year students are assigned to singles.

(B) The two fourth-year students share a double with cach other.

(D) Lee shares a room with a third-year student

(E) Pat shares a triple with two other students

Questions 7-11

A worker will colored light bulbs into a billboard equipped with exactly three light sockets, which are labled lights 1, 2, and 3. The worker has three green bulbs, three purple bulbs, and three yellow bulbs. Seiection of bulbs for the sockets is governed by the following conditions:

Whenever light 1 is purple, light 2 must be yellow.

Whenever light 2 is purple, light 1 must be green.

Whenever light 3 is either purple or yellow, light 2 must be purple.

7. Which one of the following could be an accurate list of the colors of light bulbs selected for lights 1, 2 and 3, respectively?

(A) green, green, yellow

(B) purple, green, green

(D) yellow, purple, green

(E) yellow, yellow, yellow

8. If light 1 is yellow, then any of the following can be true, EXCEPT:

(A) Light 2 is green.

(B) Light 2 is purple

(D) Light 3 is purple

(E) Light 3 is yellow

9. There is exactly one possible color sequence of the three lights if which one of the following is true?

(A) Light 1 is purple.

(B) Light 2 is purple.

(D) Light 3 is purple.

(E) Light 3 is yellow

10. If no green bulbs are selected, there are exactly how many possible different color sequences of the three lights?

(A) one

(B) two

(D) four

(E) five

11. If no two lights are assigned light bulbs that are the same color as each other, then which one of the following could be true?

(A) Light I is green, and light 2 is purple.

(B) Light I is green, and light 2 is yellow.

(D) Light I is yellow, and light 2 is green.

Questions 12-17

An attorney is scheduling interviews with witnesses for a given week. Monday through Saturday. Two full consecutive days of the week must be reserved for interviewing hostile withesses. In addition, nonhostile witnesses Q, R, U, X, Y, and Z will each be interviewed exactly once for a full morning or afternoon. The only witnesses who will be interviewed simultaneously with each other are Q and R. The following conditions apply.

X must be interviewed on Thursday morning

Q must be interviewed at some time before X.

U must be interviewed at some time before R

Z must be interviewed at some time after X and at some time after Y.

12. Which one of the following is a sequence, from first to last, in which the nonhostile witnesses could be interviewed?

(A) Q with R, U, X, Y, Z

(B) Q, U, R, X, with Y, Z

(D) U, Y, Q, with R, X, Z

(E) X, Q, with U, Z, R, Y

13, Which one of the following is acceptable as a complete schedule of witnesses for Tuesday morning. Tuesday afternoon, and Wednesday morning,respectively?

(A) Q, R, none

(B) R, none, Y

(D) U, Y, none

(E) Y, Z, none

14.If Y is interviewed at some time after X, which one of the following must be a day reserved for interviewing hostile witnesses?

(A) Monday

(B) Tuesday

(D) Friday

(E) Saturday

15. If R is interviewed at some time after Y which one of the following must be a day reserved for interviewing hostile witnesses?

(A) Monday

(B) Tuesday

(D) Thursday

(E) Friday

16. If on Wednesday afternoon and on Monday the attomey conducts no interviews, which one of the following be true?

(A) Q is interviewed on the same day as U

(B) R is interviewed on the same day as Y

(D) Y is interviewed on the same day as Wednesday

(E) Z is interviewed on the same day as Friday

17. If Z is interviewed on Saturday morning which one of the following can be true?

(A) Wednesday is a day reserved for interiewing hostile witnesses.

(B) Friday is a day reserved for interviewing hostile witnesses.

(D) U is interviewed on Tuesday

(E) Y is interviewed at some time before Thursday

Questions 18-24

During a four-week period, cach of seven previously unadvertised products-G, H, J, K, L, M, and O-will be advertised. A different pair of these products will be advertised each week. Exactly one of the products will be a member of two of these four pairs. The following constraints must be observed:

J is not advertised during a given week unless H is advertised during the immediately precceding week.

The product that is advertised during two of the weeks is advertised during week 4 but is not advertised during week 3

G is not advertised during a given week unless either J or else O is also advertised that week.

K is advertised during one of the first two weeks

O is one of the products advertised during week 3

18. Which one of the following could be the schedule of advertisernents?

(A) week 1: G, J; week 2: K, L; week 3: O, M; week 4: H, L

(B) week 1: H, K; week 2: J, G; week 3: O, L; week 4: M, K

(D) week 1: H, L; week 2: J, M; week 3: O, G; week 4: K, L

(E) week 1: K, M; week 2: H, J; week 3: O, G; week 4: L, M

19. Which one of the following is a pair of products that CANNOT be advertised during the same week as each other?

(A) H and k

(B) H and M

(D) K and L

(E) L and M

20. Which one of the following must be advertised during week 2?

(A) G

(B) J

(D) L

(E) M

21. Which one of the following CANNOT be the product that is advertised during two of the weeks?

(A) G

(B) H

(D) L

(E) M

22. If L is the product that is advertised during two of the weeks, which one of the following is a product that must be advertised during one of the weeks in which L is advertised

(A) G

(B) H

(D) K

(E) M

23. Which one of the following is a product that could be advertised in any of the four weeks?

(A) H

(B) J

(D) L

(E) O

24. Which one of the following is a pair of products that could be advertised during the same week as each other

(A) G and H

(B) H and J